HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
Question 2 of 9
When obtaining a rectal temperature with an electronic thermometer, which action is most important for the nurse to perform?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When obtaining a rectal temperature with an electronic thermometer, holding the thermometer in place is crucial. This action ensures accurate temperature measurement and prevents injury to the client. Option B, placing a disposable pad under the buttocks, is not the most important action; it may enhance comfort but does not impact the accuracy of the temperature reading. Option C, instructing the client to breathe deeply, is irrelevant to obtaining a rectal temperature. Option D, returning the probe to the charger, is an incorrect action after temperature measurement.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial as it may indicate postoperative complications requiring immediate attention. This symptom can be a sign of bleeding, infection, or other issues that need prompt medical evaluation. Avoiding strenuous activity for 6 weeks is important but not as urgent as reporting fresh blood. Taking acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F is relevant but addressing fresh blood in the urine takes precedence. Consuming an adequate amount of water daily is beneficial but not as critical as recognizing and reporting signs of potential complications.
Question 4 of 9
A client with hyperthyroidism who has not been responsive to medications is admitted for evaluation. What action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a scenario where a client with hyperthyroidism is not responding to medications, the nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider. This is important because the client may require immediate intervention, such as adjusting the treatment plan or exploring alternative therapies. Reviewing the client's medication history (choice B) may be relevant but not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider. While preparing the client for thyroid function tests (choice C) may be necessary as part of the evaluation process, it is not the most immediate action to take. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not directly related to the non-responsiveness of medications in hyperthyroidism and is not a priority in this situation.
Question 5 of 9
During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A serum pH of 7.28 indicates metabolic acidosis in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to acidosis. Monitoring and correcting the pH level is crucial in managing DKA. Serum glucose levels may be high in DKA, but the immediate concern is correcting the acidosis to prevent complications. Serum potassium and bicarbonate levels are also important but not as immediately critical as correcting the acidosis in DKA.
Question 7 of 9
A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated serum ammonia levels indicate significant liver dysfunction and an increased risk of worsening encephalopathy. Bilirubin level and prothrombin time are important in assessing liver function, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels take precedence as they directly contribute to neurological symptoms. Serum sodium level, though important, is not the primary concern when managing hepatic encephalopathy.
Question 8 of 9
A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering intravenous insulin is the initial priority in managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Insulin helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, addressing the underlying cause of DKA. Monitoring urine output (choice B) is important but is not the first intervention needed. Administering intravenous fluids (choice C) is essential to correct dehydration in DKA, but insulin therapy takes precedence. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (choice D) is contraindicated in DKA as it can exacerbate hyperglycemia.
Question 9 of 9
A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to implement is to cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment to prevent infection. In cases of puncture wounds like stepping on a rusty nail, the immediate concern is to reduce the risk of infection. Providing teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours is important as well, but it should come after the wound is cleansed. Checking the child's temperature and transferring to the emergency department for a gamma globulin injection are not the immediate priorities in this scenario.