HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who is taking an oral dose of a tetracycline complains of gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Toasted wheat bread and jelly. Dairy products decrease the effect of tetracycline, so the nurse should instruct the client to avoid them. Toast, which contains no dairy products, may help decrease gastrointestinal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C contain dairy products, which should be avoided when taking tetracycline.
Question 2 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium closely is essential. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to increased red blood cell production, which may cause potassium levels to rise, potentially resulting in hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly impacted by erythropoietin therapy in the context of CKD.
Question 3 of 5
A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), a serum pH of 7.30 is the most concerning value as it indicates acidosis, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not the most concerning in this scenario. A low serum potassium level (Choice A) may be expected due to cellular shift in hyperglycemia, a serum glucose level of 200 mg/dl (Choice B) is not as concerning compared to the extremely high initial glucose level, and a serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (Choice D) is within the normal range and not the immediate priority.
Question 4 of 5
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles indicate fluid overload in the lungs, a critical sign in a client with heart failure. This finding suggests that the furosemide may not be effectively managing the fluid balance, and immediate intervention is required. Choices A, B, and C are not immediate concerns in this scenario. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and the presence of a new murmur are findings that may require monitoring or intervention but are not as urgent as crackles in the lungs in a client with heart failure.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy as prescribed is the initial priority when managing an exacerbation of COPD. In COPD exacerbations, the primary concern is hypoxemia due to impaired gas exchange. Administering oxygen helps to improve oxygenation and prevent further complications. Elevating the head of the bed can aid in breathing comfort but is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygen supply. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is important but comes after ensuring oxygenation. Obtaining a sputum culture is relevant for identifying pathogens but is not the immediate priority in addressing hypoxemia.