HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with daily insulin injections. Which information should the nurse teach when carrying out plans for discharge?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client is stabilized with daily insulin injections, it is crucial to rotate the injection sites systematically. This practice helps prevent the development of lipodystrophy, which can affect insulin absorption and lead to inconsistent glucose control. Additionally, rotating sites minimizes discomfort and tissue damage, ensuring optimal insulin delivery and effectiveness.
Question 2 of 5
A healthcare professional prepares to reinforce instructions to a client who is taking allopurinol (Zyloprim). The healthcare professional plans to include which of the following in the instructions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Allopurinol is an antigout medication that works by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. To prevent kidney stones and promote the excretion of uric acid, increased fluid intake is essential. Instructing the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day helps to reduce the risk of kidney stones and assists in the elimination of uric acid, thereby enhancing the effectiveness of allopurinol therapy.
Question 3 of 5
The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.
Question 4 of 5
A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.
Question 5 of 5
The healthcare provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial-thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Silver sulfadiazine is an antibacterial used to treat burns, helping in the healing process. It does not permanently stain the skin. Therefore, the statement indicating a lack of understanding is that the medication will permanently stain the skin.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for HESI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your HESI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access