A client taking furosemide (Lasix) reports difficulty sleeping. What question is important for the nurse to ask the client?

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HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client taking furosemide (Lasix) reports difficulty sleeping. What question is important for the nurse to ask the client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse needs to determine at what time of day the client takes the Lasix. Due to the diuretic effect of Lasix, clients should take the medication in the morning to prevent nocturia, which may be contributing to the sleep difficulties. Asking about the dose of medication (Choice A) is important but addressing the timing of intake is more crucial in this situation. Inquiring about potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is relevant for clients on potassium-sparing diuretics. Weight loss (Choice C) may be relevant for monitoring the client's overall health but is not directly related to the sleep issue in this case.

Question 2 of 5

The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.

Question 3 of 5

A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer, D, is the most appropriate response for the nurse to provide to the agitated client demanding food. This response is correct because it provides a clear and concise explanation to the client about the necessity of being NPO for the stress-thallium test. By reminding the client that the test requires nothing by mouth, the nurse reinforces the importance of following the healthcare provider's instructions for the procedure. Option A is incorrect because it does not directly address the reason for NPO status and may come across as dismissive. Option B is also incorrect as it compromises the integrity of the test by allowing the client to have food when they should be NPO. Option C, while probing for information, does not directly address the client's agitation and fails to reinforce the importance of NPO status. In the context of medical-surgical nursing, it is crucial for nurses to effectively communicate with patients about the rationale behind specific instructions, such as NPO status before certain procedures. This not only ensures patient safety and optimal test results but also promotes patient understanding and compliance with their care plan. Effective communication in nursing is essential for building trust with patients and promoting positive outcomes.

Question 4 of 5

A female client taking oral contraceptives reports to the nurse that she is experiencing calf pain. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to implement is Option C: advise the client to notify the healthcare provider for immediate medical attention. Calf pain in a client taking oral contraceptives can be a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment to prevent complications like pulmonary embolism. Option A is incorrect because focusing on breast tenderness and weight gain does not address the urgency of the situation. Option B is inappropriate as encouraging exercise could potentially worsen a DVT if present. Option D is also incorrect as stopping the medication without medical guidance can have adverse effects on the client's health. From an educational perspective, this question highlights the importance of recognizing potential complications of oral contraceptives and the need for immediate action when a client presents with symptoms that could indicate a serious condition. Nurses must be able to quickly assess and respond to such situations to ensure patient safety and well-being.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse notes that the only ECG for a 55-year-old male client scheduled for surgery in two hours is dated two years ago. The client reports that he has a history of 'heart trouble,' but has no problems at present. Hospital protocol requires that those over 50 years of age have a recent ECG prior to surgery. What nursing action is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is 55 years old with a history of 'heart trouble,' which necessitates a recent ECG before surgery as per hospital policy. The nurse should prioritize patient safety and adhere to the protocol by arranging for an ECG to be performed immediately. Option A is not the best initial action as the focus should be on obtaining the necessary test first. Option C is not the immediate action required, and option D is premature without obtaining the necessary ECG first.

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