HESI RN
RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client recently diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statements made by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct statements indicating a proper understanding of the teaching include the need for antibiotics for dental work, the potential need to adjust pain medication doses, and the importance of monitoring blood sugar levels. The statement about watching for bleeding with anticoagulants is not directly related to CKD and discharge instructions for this condition. Therefore, option A is correct, as it addresses relevant concerns for a client with CKD, while the other options are either unrelated or not specifically mentioned in the scenario.
Question 2 of 9
A client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level is 80 seconds. The client's baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds. Which action does the nurse anticipate is needed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse needs to decrease the rate of the heparin infusion. The therapeutic dose of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis is designed to keep the aPTT between 1.5 and 2.5 times normal. With the client's aPTT level elevated to 80 seconds from a baseline of 30 seconds, it indicates that the current rate of heparin infusion is too high. Lowering the rate of infusion is necessary to bring the aPTT within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because shutting off the infusion, increasing the rate, or leaving it as is would not address the elevated aPTT level and may lead to complications.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing a postoperative client on an hourly basis. The nurse notes that the client's urine output for the past hour was 25 mL. Based on this finding, the nurse first:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients are at risk of hypovolemia postoperatively, and decreased urine output can be an early sign. However, to accurately interpret this finding, the nurse must assess the overall fluid balance by checking the client's intake and output records. Increasing the IV infusion rate or administering a bolus of normal saline solution without a physician's order would not be appropriate as these interventions require a prescription. The physician should be notified once the nurse has collected all necessary assessment data, including fluid status and vital signs.
Question 4 of 9
A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled to have blood drawn for a fasting blood glucose determination in the morning. What does the nurse tell the client is acceptable to consume on the morning of the test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Water. A client scheduled for a fasting blood glucose test should only consume water after midnight to ensure accurate test results. Choosing options B, C, or D, which include tea, coffee, or clear liquids like apple juice, is incorrect as they may contain substances that can affect the blood glucose levels, leading to inaccurate test results.
Question 5 of 9
A client with kidney stones from secondary hyperoxaluria requires medication. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allopurinol (Zyloprim). Allopurinol is used to treat kidney stones caused by secondary hyperoxaluria. This medication helps prevent the formation of certain types of kidney stones. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is given to clients with urinary tract infections, not for kidney stones. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) is an anticholinergic medication used for treating certain gastrointestinal conditions, not kidney stones. Tolterodine (Detrol LA) is also an anticholinergic with smooth muscle relaxant properties, primarily used to treat overactive bladder conditions, not kidney stones.
Question 6 of 9
What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ideal goal of treatment for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema is to maintain a balanced intake and output. This helps in achieving optimal fluid balance, enabling the heart to eject blood effectively without increasing pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. While maintaining oxygen saturation above 92% is important for adequate tissue oxygenation, the primary focus in this scenario is fluid balance. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds is important to assess for pulmonary status, but it is not the primary goal to prevent pulmonary edema specifically. Similarly, absence of shortness of breath at rest is a relevant goal, but the emphasis in CKD management is on fluid balance to prevent pulmonary complications.
Question 7 of 9
A client has just undergone insertion of a chest tube that is attached to a closed chest drainage system. Which action should the nurse plan to take in the care of this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a closed chest drainage system is to tape the connections between the chest tube and the drainage system. This is done to prevent accidental disconnection, ensuring the system functions properly. Assessing the client's chest for crepitus should be done more frequently than once every 24 hours to monitor for any air leaks. Adding sterile water to the suction control chamber is not necessary every shift; it should be done as needed to maintain the appropriate water level. Recording the volume of secretions in the drainage collection chamber should be done more frequently than every 24 hours, with hourly monitoring during the first 24 hours after insertion and every 8 hours thereafter to assess for changes or complications.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a history of lung disease is at risk for respiratory acidosis. For which of the following signs and symptoms does the nurse assess this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disorientation and dyspnea. In respiratory acidosis, the retention of carbon dioxide leads to an increase in carbonic acid, causing the pH of the blood to decrease. This can result in symptoms such as dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to hypoxia and disorientation due to the effects of hypercapnia (elevated carbon dioxide levels) on the brain. Choice B is incorrect because while drowsiness and tachypnea can be present in respiratory acidosis, headache is not a common symptom. Choice C is incorrect because dizziness and paresthesias are not typical symptoms of respiratory acidosis. Choice D is incorrect because dysrhythmias and a decreased respiratory rate and depth are more commonly associated with respiratory alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis.
Question 9 of 9
A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to immediately contact the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Periorbital edema would not typically be associated with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) and could indicate other underlying issues that require immediate attention. Flank pain and an enlarged abdomen are common findings in PKD due to kidney enlargement and displacement of other organs. Bloody or cloudy urine can result from cyst rupture or infection, which are expected in PKD. Therefore, periorbital edema is the most alarming finding in this scenario and warrants prompt notification of the healthcare provider.