HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and has a rash on the chest. What is the nurse's first action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and a rash on the chest is to stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial in preventing the allergic reaction from worsening. Administering an antihistamine (choice A) may address the symptoms but does not address the primary concern of stopping the infusion. Slowing the infusion rate and monitoring the client (choice C) may not be sufficient if the reaction is severe. Administering epinephrine subcutaneously (choice D) is not the first-line intervention for this situation.
Question 2 of 5
A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to monitor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's level of consciousness. Lactulose is used to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring the level of consciousness helps assess the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in improving the client's condition. Monitoring ammonia levels (choice A) is important, but assessing the client's response to therapy through their level of consciousness is more crucial. Blood glucose levels (choice B) and potassium levels (choice C) are not directly related to lactulose therapy for cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy.
Question 3 of 5
A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.
Question 4 of 5
A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing hyperglycemia. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate long-term glucose control?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C). Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects long-term glucose control over the past three months. Monitoring blood glucose levels provides information on the current glucose status and immediate control, but it does not give a comprehensive view of long-term control. Urine output and serum ketone levels are important indicators for other aspects of diabetes management, such as hydration status and ketone production during hyperglycemic episodes, but they do not directly reflect long-term glucose control.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is cause for the most concern as it could indicate compromised blood circulation, potentially leading to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea are not directly related to the client's condition in atrial fibrillation and the heart rate discrepancy.