HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should observe which of the following clients for a risk of vitamin B6 deficiency?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic alcohol use disorder can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency due to impaired absorption and increased excretion of the vitamin. While clients with cystic fibrosis may be at risk for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, they are not specifically at high risk for vitamin B6 deficiency. Clients taking phenytoin are at risk for folate deficiency, not vitamin B6. Clients prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis are at risk for vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin B6.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A malnourished client on bed rest is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to a combination of factors such as poor nutritional status and immobility. Malnourished individuals have compromised skin integrity, making them more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Being on bed rest further exacerbates this risk as constant pressure on bony prominences can lead to tissue damage. Although the other choices may also be at risk for developing decubitus ulcers, the malnourished client on bed rest presents the highest risk due to the combination of malnutrition and immobility.
Question 4 of 5
A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.
Question 5 of 5
An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex is the appropriate action in this scenario. It helps assess the client's ability to swallow safely without the risk of aspiration. Adding a thickening agent to the fluids (Choice A) may be considered later if swallowing difficulties persist. Feeding the client only solid foods (Choice C) can increase the risk of aspiration in this case, and increasing the rate of intravenous fluids (Choice D) does not address the swallowing concern.
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