HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.
Question 2 of 5
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), who usually works on a surgical unit, is assigned to float to a pediatric unit. Which question by the charge nurse would be most appropriate when making delegation decisions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate question by the charge nurse would be to ask the UAP if they have reviewed the list of expected skills needed on the pediatric unit. This ensures that the UAP is aware of the specific skills required for safe and appropriate care in that particular unit. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need for the UAP to review the expected skills, which is crucial for delegation decisions during floating assignments.
Question 3 of 5
The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.
Question 4 of 5
A client with diabetes mellitus presents with a blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL. What is the nurse's initial action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a high blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL, the nurse's initial action should be to administer sliding scale insulin as prescribed. The priority is to bring down the elevated glucose level promptly to prevent further complications. Encouraging the client to drink fluids or providing a carbohydrate snack would not effectively address the elevated blood sugar level in this scenario. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia is not appropriate as the client's blood sugar level is high, not low.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site should the nurse select?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free from major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury. The deltoid muscle can be used for smaller volumes of medication, primarily vaccines. The vastus lateralis muscle is commonly used in infants, toddlers, and young children. The dorsogluteal muscle site is discouraged due to its proximity to the sciatic nerve, increasing the risk of injury or nerve damage.