A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?

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HESI Nutrition Practice Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.

Question 2 of 5

A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 350 mg/dL. Which of these actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering insulin as ordered is the priority action when a client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 350 mg/dL. Insulin helps to lower the high blood glucose level and prevent complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis. Encouraging the client to drink fluids may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to lower the blood glucose level. Notifying the healthcare provider and rechecking the blood glucose level can be important steps but should come after administering insulin to address the high glucose level promptly.

Question 3 of 5

A client with a head injury is being monitored for increased intracranial pressure. Which of these findings should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pupils that are equal and reactive to light are a crucial neurological assessment finding. Changes in pupil size and reactivity can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and are not indicative of increased intracranial pressure. A heart rate of 72 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, and a client reporting a headache are common findings and may not necessitate immediate intervention in this context.

Question 4 of 5

A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of these instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.' Before a colonoscopy, it is essential to cleanse the colon thoroughly by drinking a bowel preparation solution. This helps to ensure that the colon is clear for the procedure, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding eating or drinking after midnight, having a light breakfast, and avoiding medications are not specific instructions related to the colonoscopy preparation process.

Question 5 of 5

A client is receiving treatment for hypothyroidism. Which of these assessments would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg would be most concerning to the nurse because changes in blood pressure can indicate worsening hypothyroidism, potentially leading to complications such as myxedema coma. A heart rate of 70 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are within normal ranges and not typically directly associated with hypothyroidism complications.

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