A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

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HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk.

Question 2 of 5

A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements such as ferrous sulfate. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down the movement of the digestive system and hardening the stool. Patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake, dietary fiber, and physical activity to help alleviate this side effect.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is providing instructions to an adolescent who has a history of seizures and is taking an anticonvulsant medication. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the instructions?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, option C is the correct answer: "I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication." This statement indicates that the client understands an important aspect of taking anticonvulsant medication. Alcohol can interact with anticonvulsants, reducing their effectiveness or causing adverse effects. This understanding is crucial for the adolescent's safety and well-being. Option A is incorrect because it presents a blanket statement that the client will never be able to drive a car, which is not necessarily true for all individuals taking anticonvulsant medication. Option B is incorrect as it implies that the medication will clear up the client's skin, which is not a common effect of anticonvulsants. Option D is also incorrect because doubling the dosage of medication without medical advice can be dangerous and should not be encouraged. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of patient education regarding medication management, interactions, and potential side effects. It emphasizes the need for clear communication between healthcare providers and patients, especially when dealing with medications that can significantly impact a person's health and daily activities.

Question 4 of 5

The client with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving daunorubicin (DaunoXome). Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a toxic effect related to the medication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Crackles on auscultation of the lungs would indicate a toxic effect related to daunorubicin, known to cause cardiotoxicity. Cardiotoxicity can manifest as heart failure, abnormal ECG findings, or cardiomyopathy. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs of cardiotoxicity to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications.

Question 5 of 5

During an admission assessment, a client informs the nurse that they take propylthiouracil (PTU) daily. Based on this information, the nurse suspects that the client has a history of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism, including Graves' disease, which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. The client mentioning the daily use of PTU indicates that they likely have a history of Graves' disease, as this medication helps manage the condition by reducing the production of thyroid hormones. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Graves' disease.

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