HESI RN
HESI Community Health Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse implement next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, should be administered because the client's apical pulse is greater than 60.
Question 2 of 5
A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse implement next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, should be administered because the client's apical pulse is greater than 60.
Question 3 of 5
The healthcare professional is developing a program to promote healthy eating habits in a community with high rates of obesity. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Offering cooking classes that focus on healthy recipes is the most effective strategy among the choices provided. These classes not only provide valuable knowledge about nutrition but also offer hands-on experience in preparing healthy meals. This practical approach can significantly impact participants' behavior and increase the likelihood of them adopting healthier eating habits. Distributing educational pamphlets may not have the same level of engagement and interaction as cooking classes. A social media campaign, while informative, may not result in direct behavioral changes. Providing free health screenings, though beneficial for early detection, does not directly address the promotion of healthy eating habits, unlike the hands-on approach of cooking classes.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A diet low in carbohydrates is not recommended for clients with diabetes mellitus. Clients should follow a balanced diet.
Question 5 of 5
A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.
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