HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is being discharged after lithotripsy for a urinary calculus. Which statements should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After lithotripsy for a urinary calculus, it is important for the client to complete the prescribed antibiotic course to prevent urinary tract infections. Drinking at least 3 liters of fluid daily helps dilute stone-forming crystals, prevent dehydration, and promote urine flow. Bruising on the back may occur after the procedure and can take several weeks to resolve. Additionally, the client may experience blood in the urine for several days post-procedure. Reporting any pain, fever, chills, or urination difficulties to the healthcare provider is essential, as these symptoms could indicate infection or stone formation. Choice D is correct as all the statements are appropriate for the client's discharge teaching. Choices A, B, and C are individually correct based on the rationale provided, making D the correct answer.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.
Question 3 of 5
What action should the nurse take for a female patient experiencing vaginal itching and discharge while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) (Bactrim, Septra) for a urinary tract infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report a possible superinfection to the healthcare provider. Vaginal itching and discharge can indicate a superinfection, which is a secondary infection that can occur while taking antibiotics. It is essential to notify the provider so that appropriate treatment can be initiated. Asking about pregnancy is not relevant in this context as vaginal itching and discharge are not typical signs of pregnancy. Simply reassuring the patient that these symptoms are normal side effects is inadequate as they may indicate a more serious issue like a superinfection. Suspecting a hematologic reaction is not warranted based on the symptoms described.
Question 4 of 5
A patient taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to treat a urinary tract infection complains of a sore throat. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which laboratory test(s)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) for a urinary tract infection presents with a sore throat, the nurse should request a complete blood count with differential. TMP-SMX can cause life-threatening adverse effects such as agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a low white blood cell count, which can manifest as a sore throat. Ordering a complete blood count with differential helps assess the patient's white blood cell count to detect any potential serious adverse effects. Throat culture (Choice B) is not indicated unless there are specific signs of a throat infection. Urinalysis (Choice C) is not relevant for assessing a sore throat. Coagulation studies (Choice D) are not typically indicated for a sore throat symptom.
Question 5 of 5
A client who is postmenopausal and has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months asks, "I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?" How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low estrogen levels in postmenopausal women decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area, causing tissue changes that predispose them to infection, including urethritis. This is a common reason for urethritis in postmenopausal women. While immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases can cause urethritis, the most likely reason in this case is the low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene practices are usually not a significant factor in the development of urethritis.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for HESI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your HESI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access