A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?

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HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone Questions

Question 1 of 9

A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.

Question 2 of 9

The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.

Question 3 of 9

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving supplemental oxygen. The client reports feeling short of breath and has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. What should the nurse do first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation, making it the priority intervention for a client with shortness of breath. This position helps in maximizing lung expansion and aiding ventilation-perfusion matching in patients with COPD. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be necessary but should come after optimizing the client's positioning. Notifying the healthcare provider and administering a bronchodilator are not the initial interventions for addressing shortness of breath in a client with COPD.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client following a craniotomy. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.' This finding should be reported immediately as it could indicate a serious complication such as increased intracranial pressure or respiratory compromise. In a post-craniotomy client, changes in breath sounds may be a sign of developing issues that need prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate post-craniotomy period. Pupils equal and reactive to light are expected findings, a sudden increase in urine output may require monitoring but not immediate reporting, and a small increase in blood pressure may not be alarming unless it is significantly high or accompanied by other concerning signs.

Question 5 of 9

Which strategy should the nurse implement when teaching a client with low literacy about a new diagnosis of hypertension?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct strategy for teaching a client with low literacy about a new diagnosis of hypertension is to use simple language and visual aids. This approach helps ensure better understanding of the diagnosis and treatment plan by making the information clear and accessible. Providing a detailed handout with complex terms (Choice A) would not be suitable as it may confuse the client further. Encouraging the client to research the diagnosis online (Choice C) could lead to misinformation and overwhelm the client with information they may not understand. Incorporating medical jargon to explain the condition (Choice D) would not be helpful for a client with low literacy as it may complicate rather than clarify the information.

Question 6 of 9

A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed antibiotics. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to give the client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for the nurse to give a client with a UTI who is prescribed antibiotics is to complete the full course of antibiotics. Completing the full course of antibiotics is essential to ensure that the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. While taking antibiotics with food, increasing fluid intake, and managing discomfort with pain relievers are important aspects of UTI management, completing the prescribed course of antibiotics is the top priority to achieve the best treatment outcomes and prevent recurrence of the infection.

Question 7 of 9

An adolescent client with intellectual disability refuses oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best reinforcement for the nurse to implement is preferred activities or privileges for compliance. Positive reinforcement with privileges is effective in encouraging behavior change in adolescents, including those with intellectual disabilities. Choice A (Candy for successful oral hygiene tasks) may not be suitable as it involves providing a sugary reward, which contradicts the goal of oral hygiene. Choice B (Tokens for each successful oral hygiene task) could be effective but may not be as motivating as preferred activities or privileges. Choice C (Privilege restrictions for refusing oral hygiene tasks) focuses on negative reinforcement, which is not as effective as positive reinforcement in behavior modification.

Question 8 of 9

A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client's urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.

Question 9 of 9

A client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed. These interventions help relieve dyspnea and chest pain, which can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism or other complications during heparin therapy. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not the initial priority in this situation as the client's symptoms are not suggestive of angina. Assessing for bleeding (Choice C) is important but not the first action needed to address chest pain and dyspnea. Administering albuterol (Choice D) is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory issues requiring it, which are not described in the scenario.

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