HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is admitted to the ER with DKA. In the acute phase, the priority nursing action is to prepare to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering regular insulin intravenously is the priority nursing action in the acute phase of DKA. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels by promoting cellular uptake of glucose and inhibiting ketone production. Administering dextrose would be counterproductive as it can worsen hyperglycemia. Correcting acidosis is important but usually follows insulin administration. Applying an electrocardiogram monitor is not the priority action in the acute management of DKA.
Question 2 of 9
What is the nurse manager's role in improving the quality of care on the unit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse manager plays a crucial role in improving the quality of care on the unit by setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals. This involves strategic planning, coordination, and leadership to guide the team in delivering high-quality patient care. Option B is incorrect as while monitoring patient outcomes is important, it is not the primary role of the nurse manager in improving care quality. Option C is incorrect because while ensuring staff adherence to procedures is important, it is a part of maintaining quality rather than actively improving it. Option D is incorrect as providing feedback and coaching, though essential, is not the primary role of the nurse manager in setting goals and priorities for quality improvement.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of adrenal insufficiency. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of an Addisonian crisis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In an Addisonian crisis, there is a lack of adrenal hormones leading to severe hypotension. Hypertension (choice A) is not a typical sign of Addisonian crisis but can occur in conditions like pheochromocytoma. Hyperglycemia (choice B) is not a characteristic sign of an Addisonian crisis. Tachycardia (choice D) may occur as a compensatory mechanism in response to hypotension, but severe bradycardia is more common in an Addisonian crisis.
Question 4 of 9
Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.
Question 5 of 9
A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.
Question 6 of 9
An RN enters a patient's room to place an indwelling urinary catheter, as ordered by the healthcare professional. The client is alert and oriented and tells the RN he wants to leave the hospital now and not receive further treatment. Which of the following actions by the RN would be considered false imprisonment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: False imprisonment occurs when a person is prevented from leaving against their will. By telling the patient they are not allowed to leave, the RN is restricting the patient's freedom unlawfully. Choice B is focused on understanding the patient's reasons for leaving and does not involve restricting the patient's freedom. Choice C aims to assess the patient's understanding of their medical condition, which is unrelated to false imprisonment. Choice D involves obtaining consent for leaving against medical advice, which is a legal and ethical process and not false imprisonment.
Question 7 of 9
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first intervention in a client with DKA is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline for fluid resuscitation. This is crucial to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion, addressing the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA. Administering insulin without addressing the dehydration can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but is not the first priority; potassium levels can shift with fluid resuscitation. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is helpful in assessing acid-base status but is not the initial priority compared to fluid resuscitation.
Question 8 of 9
After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.
Question 9 of 9
A client with type 1 DM is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should prioritize which action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering intravenous fluids is the priority in treating DKA for several reasons. DKA is characterized by severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to hyperglycemia. IV fluids help to correct dehydration, restore electrolyte balance, and decrease blood glucose levels. Administering oral glucose (Choice B) would be contraindicated in DKA as the primary issue is high blood glucose levels. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice C) is not the priority in managing DKA. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances take precedence in the management of DKA.