HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has an indwelling catheter with continuous bladder irrigation after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) 12 hours ago. Which finding at this time should be reported to the health care provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with an indwelling catheter and continuous bladder irrigation post TURP, minimal drainage into the urinary collection bag should be reported to the health care provider. This finding could indicate a blockage in the catheter or a complication that requires immediate attention. Light pink urine (choice A) is expected due to bladder irrigation. Occasional suprapubic cramping (choice B) is common post-TURP. Complaints of the feeling of pulling on the urinary catheter (choice D) may indicate discomfort but do not suggest an urgent issue like a potential blockage.
Question 2 of 5
Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, a preschooler with intermittent alertness. This client may not have the cognitive ability to effectively use a PCA pump due to their age and alertness level. They may not understand how to self-administer the analgesia. Choices A, B, and C are more appropriate candidates for PCA as they are likely to have better comprehension and ability to operate the PCA pump compared to a preschooler with intermittent alertness.
Question 3 of 5
A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.
Question 5 of 5
A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The tube will remove excess air from your chest.' In a spontaneous pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse. The chest tube is inserted to remove this excess air, allowing the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of a chest tube in pneumothorax is to evacuate air, not fluid, control air entry, or seal a lung hole.