HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
A child is admitted with bacterial meningitis. What assessment finding should the nurse monitor most closely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Signs of increased intracranial pressure, such as changes in consciousness or pupil reactivity, are critical to monitor in children with bacterial meningitis to prevent complications. Monitoring the client's skin for rash and lesions (Choice A) is not the priority in bacterial meningitis. While monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is important, signs of increased intracranial pressure take precedence. Monitoring for changes in heart rate and rhythm (Choice D) is less specific to the condition and may not indicate worsening neurological status.
Question 2 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the therapy and ensure the client is not developing anemia. Increased hemoglobin levels indicate successful treatment, whereas very high levels may suggest erythropoietin is overcorrecting the anemia. Monitoring the white blood cell count is not directly related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia. Serum creatinine level is used to assess kidney function rather than the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Platelet count is not typically affected by erythropoietin therapy and is not a key indicator of its effectiveness.
Question 3 of 5
A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.
Question 4 of 5
A client with cirrhosis develops ascites. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restrict fluid intake to manage fluid overload. In a client with cirrhosis developing ascites, the priority intervention is to restrict fluid intake. This helps manage fluid overload, prevent further complications, such as respiratory distress or kidney impairment, and reduce the accumulation of ascitic fluid. Administering diuretics may be a part of the treatment plan, but the primary focus should be on fluid restriction. Positioning the client in Fowler's position and measuring the abdominal girth are important interventions but not the priority when managing ascites in cirrhosis.
Question 5 of 5
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any bleeding-related symptoms for evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach, is more relevant for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent vitamin K intake. Warfarin should be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for changes in blood pressure is not directly related to warfarin therapy; instead, the focus should be on monitoring for signs of bleeding.