HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3 indicates severe neurological impairment, which is consistent with a comatose state and suggests a poor prognosis. The Glasgow Coma Scale ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating more severe impairment. A score of 3 is the lowest possible score, indicating deep unconsciousness. This client is not conscious, as indicated by the GCS score of 3, making choice C incorrect. Choice A is also incorrect as increased intracranial pressure may lead to altered consciousness but is not specifically indicated by a GCS score of 3. Choice B is incorrect as a GCS score of 3 indicates a very poor prognosis for recovery, not a good prognosis.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, a 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus, because the antepartal unit specializes in caring for pregnant women. Clients with chronic hepatitis B, rubella, and herpes lesions of the vulva do not require transfer to the antepartal unit as their conditions are not directly related to pregnancy. Lupus erythematosus, however, is a systemic autoimmune disease that can have implications for pregnancy outcomes, such as increased risk of preterm birth and preeclampsia. Therefore, transferring the client with lupus to the antepartal unit ensures specialized care and monitoring during pregnancy.
Question 3 of 5
A male client with diabetes mellitus takes Novolin 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin (Zithromax) PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of the Zithromax an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is important for the client to maintain the appropriate timing of taking the Zithromax for optimal effectiveness. By instructing the client to eat breakfast and then take the Zithromax two hours after eating, the nurse ensures that the medication is still absorbed effectively without causing any potential GI upset. Option A is incorrect because waiting for a new breakfast tray is unnecessary and delays medication administration. Option C is incorrect as skipping a dose may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes. Option D is incorrect as providing an antacid is not indicated in this situation and may not address the issue of timing the Zithromax correctly.
Question 4 of 5
Which instruction should the nurse provide to an elderly client who is taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Change the position slowly. This instruction is important because both ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness or fainting upon sudden position changes. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent falls and complications. A: Wearing long-sleeved clothing when outdoors is unrelated to the medications mentioned. B: Reporting the onset of a sore throat is important but not specific to the medications in question. C: Eating plenty of potassium-rich foods is important for those taking ACE inhibitors but not necessarily for those on calcium channel blockers.
Question 5 of 5
An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse's attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse manager should facilitate a meeting between both nurses to identify ways of working together. This approach promotes open communication, allows both nurses to express their perspectives, and fosters collaboration to address the conflict. By involving both nurses in finding solutions, the nurse manager promotes accountability and empowers them to take ownership of resolving their differences. This approach also promotes teamwork and mutual understanding, leading to a more positive work environment. Other Choices: A: Having both nurses meet separately with a mental health consultant may not address the root cause of the conflict and could potentially escalate the situation. B: While listening actively is important, simply offering suggestions may not fully address the underlying issues causing the conflict. C: Asking the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies may be beneficial, but it does not directly address the need for both nurses to communicate and collaborate effectively.