HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 20-year-old female client calls the nurse to report a lump she found in her breast. Which response is the best for the nurse to provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse advising the client to come in provides the best response because it addresses the client's anxiety most effectively and encourages prompt and immediate action for a potential problem.
Question 2 of 5
A client with early breast cancer receives the results of a breast biopsy and asks the nurse to explain the meaning of staging and the type of receptors found on the cancer cells. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Treatment decisions and prediction of prognosis are related to the tumor's receptor status, such as estrogen and progesterone receptor status which commonly are well-differentiated, have a lower chance of recurrence, and are receptive to hormonal therapy. Tumor staging designates tumor size and spread of breast cancer cells into axillary lymph nodes, which is one of the most important prognostic factors in early-stage breast cancer.
Question 3 of 5
In assessing cancer risk, which woman is at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because family history of breast cancer, specifically in the mother, is a significant risk factor for developing breast cancer. The age of 50 is also a risk factor for breast cancer. Choice A is less likely as breastfeeding can actually reduce the risk of breast cancer. Choice C is less relevant since the risk is higher with a direct family member. Choice D, although early menarche is a risk factor, the age of the individual is much lower compared to the other age-related risk factors.
Question 4 of 5
A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.
Question 5 of 5
After checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing, the nurse determines that a client who has returned from the post-anesthesia care has a dark, concentrated urinary output of 54 ml for the last 2 hours. What priority nursing action should be implemented?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse's priority action should be to report the findings to the surgeon. An adult should typically produce about 60 ml of urine per hour, so a dark, concentrated, and low urine output of 54 ml over 2 hours raises concerns. This change in urine output may indicate issues such as dehydration, renal problems, or inadequate fluid intake. Reporting this finding to the surgeon is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention. Irrigating the catheter, applying manual pressure to the bladder, or increasing the IV flow rate are not appropriate actions based on the information provided and could potentially worsen the situation.
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