Which of the following describes a vector quantity?

Questions 44

HESI A2

HESI A2 Test Bank

HESI A2 Physics Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following describes a vector quantity?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A vector quantity is characterized by both magnitude and direction. In the provided options, choice A, '5 miles per hour due southwest,' fits this definition as it includes both the magnitude (5 miles per hour) and the direction (southwest), making it a vector quantity. Choices B and C only provide the magnitude without indicating any direction, hence they do not represent vector quantities.

Question 2 of 9

A wave in a rope travels at 12 m/s and has a wavelength of 2 m. What is the frequency?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The frequency of a wave is calculated using the formula: frequency = speed / wavelength. In this case, the speed of the wave is 12 m/s and the wavelength is 2 m. Therefore, the frequency is calculated as 12 m/s / 2 m = 6 Hz. Choice A (38.4 Hz), Choice C (4.6 Hz), and Choice D (3.75 Hz) are incorrect as they do not result from the correct calculation using the given values.

Question 3 of 9

Which substance would be most affected by a change in temperature?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Hydrogen gas would be most affected by a change in temperature because gases have a greater expansion or contraction in volume with changes in temperature compared to liquids or solids. When the temperature of hydrogen gas increases, its molecules gain kinetic energy and move faster, causing the gas to expand and its volume to increase. Conversely, when the temperature decreases, the gas molecules lose kinetic energy and move slower, leading to a decrease in volume. This property makes hydrogen gas highly sensitive to temperature changes compared to liquid nitrogen, salt crystals, or iron filings. Liquid nitrogen, salt crystals, and iron filings are less affected by temperature changes because their particles are closer together and have lower kinetic energy, resulting in minimal volume changes with temperature fluctuations.

Question 4 of 9

If a force of 12 kg stretches a spring by 3 cm, how far will the spring stretch when a force of 30 kg is applied?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The extension of a spring is directly proportional to the force applied. In this case, the force increases from 12 kg to 30 kg, which is a 2.5 times increase. Therefore, the extension of the spring will also increase by 2.5 times. Given that the spring stretches 3 cm with a force of 12 kg, multiplying 3 cm by 2.5 gives us the extension of the spring when a force of 30 kg is applied, which equals 7.5 cm. Therefore, the correct answer is 7.5 cm. Choice A, 6 cm, is incorrect because it does not account for the proportional increase in force. Choice C, 9 cm, and Choice D, 10.5 cm, are incorrect as they overestimate the extension of the spring by not considering the direct proportionality between force and extension.

Question 5 of 9

The buoyant force, F_b, experienced by an object submerged in a fluid is given by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct formula for the buoyant force experienced by an object submerged in a fluid is given by Archimedes' principle, which states that the buoyant force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. This is represented by the formula F_b = W_d, where W_d is the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. This force acts in the opposite direction to gravity and is responsible for objects floating or sinking in fluids. Choice A is incorrect because the buoyant force is not equal to the object's weight. Choice C is incorrect because the density of the fluid is not directly related to the buoyant force. Choice D is incorrect because the object's volume is not the determining factor for the buoyant force.

Question 6 of 9

In an adiabatic process, there is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In an adiabatic process, choice A is correct because adiabatic processes involve no heat transfer between the system and its surroundings (Q = 0). This lack of heat transfer is a defining characteristic of adiabatic processes. Choices B, C, and D do not accurately describe an adiabatic process. Choice B refers to an isothermal process where temperature remains constant, not adiabatic. Choice C describes an isobaric process with constant pressure, not specific to adiabatic processes. Choice D mentions the conservation of energy but does not directly relate to the absence of heat transfer in adiabatic processes.

Question 7 of 9

The operating principle of a metal detector relies on:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metal detectors work based on the principle of electromotive force induced by a changing magnetic field. When a metal object comes into contact with the detector's magnetic field, it disrupts the field, inducing a current in the metal that can be detected. This principle allows metal detectors to identify the presence of metallic objects without relying on the static presence of a permanent magnet, the high electrical conductivity of metals, or the thermal signature of the objects. Choice A is incorrect because metal detectors do not rely on a static magnet but on the interaction of metals with a changing magnetic field. Choice C is incorrect because while metals do have high electrical conductivity, this is not the principle underlying metal detectors. Choice D is incorrect because metal detectors do not operate based on the thermal signature of objects, but rather on their interaction with magnetic fields.

Question 8 of 9

A circular running track has a circumference of 2,500 meters. What is the radius of the track?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The radius of a circular track can be calculated using the formula: Circumference = 2 π radius. Given that the circumference of the track is 2,500 m, we can plug this into the formula and solve for the radius: 2,500 = 2 π radius. Dividing both sides by 2π gives: radius = 2,500 / (2 3.1416) ≈ 397.89 m. Therefore, the closest answer is 400 m, making option B the correct choice. Option A (1,000 m) is too large, option C (25 m) is too small, and option D (12 m) is significantly smaller than the calculated radius.

Question 9 of 9

When the heat of a reaction is negative, which statement is true?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When the heat of a reaction is negative, it indicates that the reaction releases energy in the form of heat. This means that the products have lower energy levels compared to the reactants. Lower energy levels are associated with greater stability in chemical systems. Therefore, when the heat of a reaction is negative, the products are more stable due to having less energy than the reactants. Choice A, stating that the products have less energy and are less stable, is incorrect as lower energy levels imply greater stability. Choice B, stating that the products have more energy and are more stable, is incorrect as lower energy levels lead to higher stability. Choice D, stating that the products have more energy and are less stable, is incorrect as lower energy levels are associated with higher stability.

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