ATI TEAS 7
ATI TEAS Science Practice Test Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following glands helps regulate calcium levels?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Parathyroid glands. The parathyroid glands are responsible for regulating calcium levels in the body. They produce parathyroid hormone (PTH), which helps control calcium levels in the blood by acting on the bones, kidneys, and intestines. The other options, such as the osteotoid gland, pineal gland, and thymus gland, do not play a significant role in calcium regulation. The osteotoid gland is a fictitious term, the pineal gland is involved in regulating sleep-wake cycles and producing melatonin, and the thymus gland is part of the immune system and plays a role in T-cell maturation.
Question 2 of 9
What are the components of the male external genitalia and their functions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The penis is responsible for delivering sperm to the female reproductive tract during sexual intercourse. The scrotum is not involved in producing sperm but rather protects and regulates the temperature of the testes, which is essential for sperm production. The prostate gland is involved in producing seminal fluid, not sperm. The urethra serves the purpose of conducting urine out of the body and also acts as a passage for semen during ejaculation.
Question 3 of 9
Identify the correct sequence of the 3 primary body planes as numbered 1, 2, and 3 in the above image.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the standard anatomical position, plane 1 (coronal/frontal plane) divides the body into anterior and posterior portions, plane 2 (sagittal plane) divides the body into left and right portions, and plane 3 (transverse/horizontal plane) divides the body into superior and inferior portions. Therefore, the correct sequence is Plane 1 as coronal, Plane 2 as sagittal, and Plane 3 as transverse, which corresponds to Choice A. Choice B is incorrect as it misidentifies the planes. Plane 2 cannot be coronal as it specifically divides the body into left and right portions. Choice C is incorrect as it misidentifies Plane 2 as sagittal when it should be coronal. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly designates Plane 2 as coronal when it should be sagittal, leading to an inaccurate sequence of the primary body planes.
Question 4 of 9
What is a gene, and what is the relationship between genes, genotype, and phenotype?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A gene is a portion of DNA that contains the instructions for a specific trait. Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an organism, encompassing all its genes. Phenotype, on the other hand, is the observable physical manifestation resulting from the interaction between an organism's genotype and environmental factors. Choice A is incorrect because genes do not consist of amino acids directly; they are sequences of nucleotides. Choice C is incorrect as genes do not determine traits directly but provide the instructions for proteins that may influence traits. Choice D is incorrect as genes are not lipids, and lipids do not determine traits; they are a type of biomolecule with different functions.
Question 5 of 9
A student hypothesizes that higher sugar consumption negatively impacts test scores. To investigate this, the student recruits participants to consume varying amounts of sugar, wait for one hour, and then complete an aptitude test. The student will record both the amount of sugar consumed and the test scores to analyze the relationship. What is the best experimental approach?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Option C provides the most thorough experimental design by including a control group. In the first round, varying sugar intake levels help explore the relationship between sugar consumption and test scores. In the second round, by having participants consume no sugar, the student can compare results to observe any changes due to sugar intake. This approach enhances the validity of the findings by accounting for potential confounding factors and better identifying causal relationships. Choice A is not ideal as it lacks a control group and does not compare the impact of sugar consumption. Choice B does not explore the effects of sugar consumption adequately as it does not include a group without sugar. Choice D does not allow for comparison between different sugar consumption levels, limiting the ability to draw meaningful conclusions.
Question 6 of 9
What is the dermis composed of?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Connective tissue. The dermis is primarily composed of connective tissue, which includes collagen and elastin fibers that provide strength and elasticity to the skin. It houses blood vessels, nerve endings, hair follicles, and glands, playing a crucial role in supporting the skin structure and function. Adipose tissue (choice A) is found in the subcutaneous layer beneath the dermis, providing insulation and energy storage. Epithelial cells (choice B) form the outermost layer of the skin called the epidermis. Muscle tissue (choice D) is not a significant component of the dermis but is found deeper in the body associated with movement and support.
Question 7 of 9
How many mL of a 0 M stock solution of HCl should be added to water to create 250 mL of a 50 M solution of HCl?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To prepare 250 mL of a 50 M solution of HCl, the formula V1 x C1 = V2 x C2 is used, where V1 is the volume of the stock solution, C1 is the concentration of the stock solution, V2 is the final volume of the desired solution, and C2 is the final concentration of the desired solution. Given V1 x 0 M = 250 mL x 50 M, solving for V1 results in V1 = (250 mL x 50 M) / 0 M = 32 mL. Therefore, 32 mL of the 0 M stock solution of HCl needs to be added to water to create a 250 mL solution of 50 M HCl. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the accurate volume required for the dilution calculation based on the given concentrations and volumes in the problem.
Question 8 of 9
What is the atomic number of an atom?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The atomic number of an atom is the number of protons in its nucleus. This number uniquely identifies the element, as each element has a distinct number of protons. Neutrons and electrons play roles in the atom's structure and stability, but the atomic number specifically refers to the number of protons. Choice B (The number of neutrons in an atom) is incorrect because the atomic number does not include neutrons; it only represents the number of protons. Choice C (The number of electrons in an atom) is incorrect because the atomic number is not related to the number of electrons, which can vary in different atomic configurations. Choice D (The sum of protons and neutrons) is incorrect because it refers to the mass number of an atom, which is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus, not just the protons.
Question 9 of 9
How does the Law of Conservation of Mass apply to this reaction: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Law of Conservation of Mass states that matter cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction. In the given reaction, 2 moles of hydrogen combine with 1 mole of oxygen to form 2 moles of water. The total mass of the reactants (hydrogen and oxygen) is equal to the total mass of the products (water), meaning there is no decrease or increase in matter. The total mass of the system remains constant, demonstrating the conservation of mass. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the conservation of mass does not specifically relate to electrons, individual elements (like hydrogen), or the formation of new molecules; instead, it focuses on the overall mass of the system before and after the reaction.