HESI RN Patho Pharmacology | Nurselytic

Questions 54

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HESI RN Patho Pharmacology Questions

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Question 1 of 5

The nurse is explaining the underlying cause of bruising with a client who is recently diagnosed with acute leukemia. Which pathophysiology is a result of the myeloblastic dysfunction of leukemia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Leukemia causes thrombocytopenia (insufficient platelets) (
B), delaying clotting and causing bruising. Oxyhemoglobin (
A) relates to oxygen transport. Phagocytic cell deficiency (
C) increases infection risk. Iron deficiency (
D) causes anemia, not bruising.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client who is admitted with polycystic kidney disease (PKD), flank pain, and hematuria. The client’s blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg. Which pathophysiological process supports the client’s blood pressure finding?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: PKD activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (
B), increasing blood pressure via vasoconstriction and fluid retention. Fluid deficit (
A) causes hypotension. Bladder inflammation (
C) is unrelated. Mineral precipitation (
D) causes stones, not hypertension.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for an immobilized client who is at risk for breakdown in skin integrity. Which pathophysiological process should the nurse note early in the development of a pressure injury?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Early pressure injury involves ischemia and inflammation, causing erythematous skin (
D). Epidermal fragility (
A) is later. Blisters (
B) suggest friction. Necrosis/eschar (
C) indicates advanced stages.

Question 4 of 5

In the kidney, where are the mechanisms found that are responsible for increasing urine concentration?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The loop of Henle (
D) creates a hypertonic medullary gradient via countercurrent multiplication, concentrating urine. Calyx (
A) and renal pelvis (
C) collect urine. Proximal tubule (
B) reabsorbs nutrients, not concentrates urine.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with stage 4 chronic kidney disease. Which interpretation should the nurse make about the client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Stage 4 CKD is defined by a severely decreased GFR (15-29 mL/min/1.73 m²) (
A), reflecting significant kidney damage. Mild (
B) and moderate (
D) decreases correspond to stages 2 and 3. Increased GFR (
C) occurs in early diabetic nephropathy, not stage 4 CKD.

Similar Questions

The nurse is triaging a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who presented to the emergency department with increased lethargy and Kussmaul respirations. A blood glucose test reveals a level of 525 mg/dL (28 mmol/L). Which laboratory results are consistent with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A client with end stage emphysema is experiencing poor gas exchange. Which respiratory structure is associated with the pathophysiological processes in emphysema?
An older male reports to the clinic nurse that he sometimes feels chest pressure and becomes breathless. He further describes an event where he had to sit for about one hour before he felt better. He is asymptomatic at rest, but is concerned that he has had a heart attack. This clinical picture is consistent with which cardiac ischemic event?
A client who has asthma (a reactive airway disease) asks the nurse about the role of leukotrienes in this process. Leukotrienes have which immune response?
The nurse is caring for an older client who is on complete bed rest. The nurse notes hematuria when the client suddenly reports excruciating pain that radiates from the back to the groin. Which pathological process has contributed to the client’s clinical presentation of a possible renal calculi?

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