HESI RN
HESI RN Patho Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with a gunshot wound to the abdomen who is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) following a 3-hour surgical procedure. Which elevated laboratory value indicates pancreatic damage?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevated lipase (
A) indicates pancreatic damage from trauma, as it’s released during injury. Myoglobinuria (
B) suggests muscle damage. Elevated WBC (
C) indicates inflammation/infection, not specific to pancreas. Bilirubin (
D) reflects liver/bile issues.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with intestinal obstruction who presents with severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention. Which pathophysiologic mechanism supports the client’s clinical presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Volvulus (
B), intestinal twisting post-appendectomy, causes obstruction, leading to colicky pain, nausea, vomiting, and distention. Nerve degeneration (
A) relates to GERD. Esophagitis (
C) causes heartburn. H. pylori (
D) causes ulcers, not obstruction.
Question 3 of 5
A client’s ankle is edematous after an ankle sprain. Which physiological mechanism is responsible for the swelling?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Histamine release post-sprain increases vascular permeability, causing fluid transudation and edema (
A). Bradykinin (
B) contributes to pain, not primarily edema. Thromboxane A (
C) promotes vasoconstriction. Neutrophil migration (
D) aids inflammation but isn’t the main edema cause.
Question 4 of 5
When developing a teaching plan for a client with peripheral artery disease, the nurse should explain that intermittent claudication occurs as the result of which underlying pathophysiology?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intermittent claudication results from arterial occlusion (
C), causing ischemic muscle pain during activity, relieved by rest. Elevation (
A) aids venous return. Redness when dependent (
B) suggests venous issues. Muscle atrophy (
D) is a late consequence.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is admitted with polycystic kidney disease (PKD), flank pain, and hematuria. The client’s blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg. Which pathophysiological process supports the client’s blood pressure finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PKD activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (
B), increasing blood pressure via vasoconstriction and fluid retention. Fluid deficit (
A) causes hypotension. Bladder inflammation (
C) is unrelated. Mineral precipitation (
D) causes stones, not hypertension.