HESI RN
HESI RN Patho Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
An older male reports to the clinic nurse that he sometimes feels chest pressure and becomes breathless. He further describes an event where he had to sit for about one hour before he felt better. He is asymptomatic at rest, but is concerned that he has had a heart attack. This clinical picture is consistent with which cardiac ischemic event?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stable angina (
C) causes predictable chest pressure with exertion, relieved by rest, as described. MI (
A) involves prolonged pain and necrosis, not relieved by rest. Unstable angina (
B) occurs at rest or with increasing severity. Prinzmetal angina (
D) is due to coronary spasm, often at rest with ECG changes.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with intestinal obstruction who presents with severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention. Which pathophysiologic mechanism supports the client’s clinical presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Volvulus (
B), intestinal twisting post-appendectomy, causes obstruction, leading to colicky pain, nausea, vomiting, and distention. Nerve degeneration (
A) relates to GERD. Esophagitis (
C) causes heartburn. H. pylori (
D) causes ulcers, not obstruction.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is explaining the underlying cause of bruising with a client who is recently diagnosed with acute leukemia. Which pathophysiology is a result of the myeloblastic dysfunction of leukemia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leukemia causes thrombocytopenia (insufficient platelets) (
B), delaying clotting and causing bruising. Oxyhemoglobin (
A) relates to oxygen transport. Phagocytic cell deficiency (
C) increases infection risk. Iron deficiency (
D) causes anemia, not bruising.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is admitted with polycystic kidney disease (PKD), flank pain, and hematuria. The client’s blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg. Which pathophysiological process supports the client’s blood pressure finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: PKD activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (
B), increasing blood pressure via vasoconstriction and fluid retention. Fluid deficit (
A) causes hypotension. Bladder inflammation (
C) is unrelated. Mineral precipitation (
D) causes stones, not hypertension.
Question 5 of 5
Two days after admission for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), an older client’s arterial blood gas (ABG) indicate an acid base imbalance. The client’s laboratory results reveal a low hemoglobin level, an elevated creatinine clearance, and decreased urine specific gravity. Which is the most likely cause for the acid base imbalance?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic renal insufficiency (
C) causes metabolic acidosis due to impaired acid excretion and bicarbonate regulation, consistent with low hemoglobin (anemia), elevated creatinine clearance (renal dysfunction), and low urine specific gravity (poor concentration). Prior MI (
A) is unrelated. Antacids (
B) don’t cause acidosis. Exertional dyspnea (
D) may cause respiratory acidosis, not metabolic.