HESI RN 301 Pharmacology Final Exam

Extract:

Question 1 of 5

When administering ceftriaxone sodium IV to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Stridor indicates airway obstruction, a potential anaphylactic reaction to ceftriaxone, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are less urgent.

Question 2 of 5

A client is receiving IV vancomycin and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine the serum level of the medication. Which collection times provide the best determination of these levels?

A. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication. B. One hour after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next administration of the medication. C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and two hours before the next administration of the medication. D. Thirty minutes into the administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Vancomycin trough levels are measured 30 minutes before the next dose to assess the lowest concentration, ensuring therapeutic levels. Peak levels, though less commonly monitored, are taken immediately after infusion to capture the highest concentration. Other timings are less accurate for these purposes.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?

A. Chronotropic effect. B. Diuresis. C. Vasodilation. D. Sympatholytic action.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Valsartan blocks angiotensin II, causing vasodilation to lower blood pressure. It doesn’t affect heart rate (chronotropic), cause diuresis, or act sympatholytically.

Question 4 of 5

A male client reports to the nurse that he is experiencing gastrointestinal (GI) distress from a high dose of a corticosteroid and is planning to stop taking the medication. In response to the client's statement, which nursing action is most important for the nurse to implement?

A. Assess the client for other indications of adverse effects of corticosteroid use. B. Advise the client that the medication should be stopped gradually rather than abruptly. C. Encourage the client to take the medication with food to decrease GI distress. D. Review the client's dosing schedule to ensure he is taking the prescribed amount.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Abruptly stopping corticosteroids risks adrenal insufficiency. Advising gradual tapering is critical. Assessing other effects, taking with food, or reviewing dosing are secondary.

Question 5 of 5

An increase in which serum lab value indicates to the nurse that a prescription for atorvastatin is having the desired effect for a client at risk for coronary artery disease?

A. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL). B. Prothrombin time (PT). C. Creatine phosphokinase (CK). D. High-density lipoprotein (HDL).

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Atorvastatin lowers LDL and raises HDL to reduce coronary artery disease risk. An increase in HDL indicates a beneficial effect. Increased LDL, PT, or CK (indicating muscle damage) are not desired.

HESI RN 301 Pharmacology Final Exam | Nurselytic

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