HESI RN
HESI RN 301 Pharmacology Final Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving calcium acetate 667 mg PO. A decrease in which blood value indicates to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Calcium acetate binds dietary phosphate in the gut, reducing serum phosphate levels in CKD patients with hyperphosphatemia, indicating effectiveness. It doesn’t directly affect pH, calcium, or potassium levels.
Question 2 of 5
A male client reports to the nurse that he is experiencing gastrointestinal (GI) distress from a high dose of a corticosteroid and is planning to stop taking the medication. In response to the client's statement, which nursing action is most important for the nurse to implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptly stopping corticosteroids risks adrenal insufficiency. Advising gradual tapering is critical. Assessing other effects, taking with food, or reviewing dosing are secondary.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who has a finger stick blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL (7.21 mmol/L). Prior to administering the scheduled dose of acarbose, the nurse is informed that morning meal trays will be 30 minutes late. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acarbose, an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, must be taken with the first bite of a meal to manage postprandial glucose. Holding it until the meal arrives ensures proper timing and efficacy. Administering early, notifying the provider, or rechecking glucose are unnecessary.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing the eyes of a client who just received mydriatic eye drops. Which physiological function of the eye will not respond during the therapeutic period after administration of the eye drops?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mydriatic drops dilate pupils, inhibiting constriction during their effect. Accommodation, refraction, and convergence may be indirectly affected but remain functional.
Question 5 of 5
Rivastigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is prescribed for a female client with early stage Alzheimer's Disease. The client's daughter tells the nurse that she plans to start administering the drug when her mother's symptoms are no longer manageable, in hopes that her mother will not have to go to a nursing home. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rivastigmine is most effective early in Alzheimer’s to manage symptoms and slow progression. Delaying until symptoms worsen reduces efficacy. Assessing mental status or confirming disease progression is secondary to correcting the timing misconception.