HESI RN 301 Pharmacology Final Exam | Nurselytic

Questions 51

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HESI RN 301 Pharmacology Final Exam Questions

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Question 1 of 5

The nurse is preparing to administer warfarin sodium 10 mg PO to a client whose international normalized ratio (INR) is 5.0. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 5.0 indicates excessive anticoagulation, increasing bleeding risk. Withholding warfarin for 24 hours and consulting the provider is appropriate. Administering, discontinuing, or retesting immediately are less prioritized.

Question 2 of 5

Which instruction should the nurse provide an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is assisting with the personal care of a client receiving clopidogrel?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel increases bleeding risk, so a soft toothbrush minimizes gum bleeding. Environment, rest, and bed elevation are unrelated to clopidogrel’s effects.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client who has a finger stick blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL (7.21 mmol/L). Prior to administering the scheduled dose of acarbose, the nurse is informed that morning meal trays will be 30 minutes late. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Acarbose, an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, must be taken with the first bite of a meal to manage postprandial glucose. Holding it until the meal arrives ensures proper timing and efficacy. Administering early, notifying the provider, or rechecking glucose are unnecessary.

Question 4 of 5

An older female client comes to the clinic for a regular check-up. The client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen for the past month to control joint pain. Based on this patient's comment, which previous laboratory results should the nurse compare with today's laboratory report?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: High acetaminophen doses risk hepatotoxicity, potentially elevating LDH, a marker of liver damage. Potassium, APTT, and hemoglobin/hematocrit are not primarily affected by acetaminophen overuse.

Question 5 of 5

An increase in which serum lab value indicates to the nurse that a prescription for atorvastatin is having the desired effect for a client at risk for coronary artery disease?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Atorvastatin lowers LDL and raises HDL to reduce coronary artery disease risk. An increase in HDL indicates a beneficial effect. Increased LDL, PT, or CK (indicating muscle damage) are not desired.

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