NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is: 'The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.' Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acidic gastric contents. While ranitidine can decrease the risk of peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, the primary purpose of H2-receptor blockade in this patient is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices, not the other listed effects.
Question 2 of 9
A man is prescribed lithium to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse is most concerned about lithium toxicity when he notices which of these assessment findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is when the patient states he has been having diarrhea every day. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, which can increase the risk of lithium toxicity. The other options, such as a manic episode, severe depression, or rash and pruritus, are not directly associated with an increased risk of lithium toxicity.
Question 3 of 9
To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily is crucial to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to the Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intrathoracic pressure, decrease venous return to the heart, and reduce cardiac output, potentially worsening the client's condition. If constipation occurs, the use of laxatives may be necessary to avoid straining. Administering antidysrhythmics on an as-needed basis is not indicated for preventing the Valsalva maneuver; they are used to manage dysrhythmias. Strict bed rest is not necessary and may lead to complications such as deconditioning, DVT, and respiratory issues in the absence of specific medical indications.
Question 4 of 9
A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.
Question 5 of 9
A man is receiving heparin subcutaneously. The patient has dementia and lives at home with a part-time caretaker. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of heparin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for Bleeding.' A patient with dementia may have impaired judgment and may be prone to falls or injuries, increasing the risk of bleeding while on heparin therapy. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial in this situation. Choice A, 'Back Pain,' is not a common side effect of heparin. Choice B, 'Fever and Chills,' is not a typical side effect of heparin but may indicate other underlying conditions. Choice D, 'Dizziness,' is not a common side effect of heparin and is not the primary concern in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A client has just been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform to prevent transmission to others?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A client diagnosed with active tuberculosis should be placed in isolation in a negative-pressure room to prevent transmission of infection to others. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room ensures that air is exhausted to the outside and received from surrounding areas, preventing tuberculin particles from traveling through the ventilation system and infecting others. Initiating standard precautions, as mentioned in choice C, is essential for infection control but is not specific to preventing transmission in the case of tuberculosis. Beginning drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis, as in choice A, is crucial for the treatment of tuberculosis but does not directly address preventing transmission. Placing the client in a positive-pressure room, as in choice B, is incorrect as positive-pressure rooms are used for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent outside pathogens from entering the room, which is not suitable for a client with active tuberculosis.
Question 7 of 9
A child has just been diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Which of the following statements about the disease is most accurate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment for juvenile idiopathic arthritis (formerly known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis). NSAIDs are important as a first-line treatment and typically require 3-4 weeks for the therapeutic anti-inflammatory effects to be realized. Choice A is incorrect as early treatment can improve outcomes and prevent joint deformities. Choice B is incorrect as juvenile idiopathic arthritis does not necessarily progress to adult rheumatoid arthritis. Choice D is incorrect as physical activity should be encouraged in children with arthritis to maintain joint mobility and overall health.
Question 8 of 9
A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct preparation for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) involves administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination. This is crucial to ensure adequate bowel preparation, which in turn allows for better visualization of the bladder and ureters during the procedure. An IVP is an x-ray exam that utilizes contrast material to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, aiding in the diagnosis of conditions like blood in the urine or pain in the side or lower back. Administering a laxative helps in achieving optimal imaging quality, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and subsequent treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining a regular diet is not the standard preparation for an IVP. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake is not typically restricted for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as an IVP involves multiple x-rays to assess the urinary system, not just one of the abdomen.
Question 9 of 9
A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.