Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Patients who experience long-term confusion often have a chronic thinking, or cognitive, disorder. Alzheimer's disease is a prime example of a disorder that results in prolonged confusion and memory loss. Choice A, 'physical', is incorrect as the issue described is related to cognitive functioning, not physical health. Choice B, 'psychotic', refers to a severe mental disorder characterized by a loss of contact with reality, which is not the primary issue presented in the scenario. Choice D, 'palliative', is not relevant as it pertains to specialized medical care for individuals with serious illnesses, focusing on providing relief from symptoms and stress rather than managing chronic confusion.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most important assessment data to obtain from an Asian-American client with major depressive disorder who maintains traditional cultural beliefs and values is their role within the family. In traditional Asian cultures, the family holds significant importance and plays a central role in influencing an individual's well-being. Understanding the client's role within the family can provide crucial insights into their support system, stressors, and coping mechanisms. Dietary practices, concept of space, and immigration status, while potentially relevant, are not as vital in this context compared to understanding the dynamics and influence of the family structure on the individual's mental health.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The best action for the nurse in this situation is to stay with the child while the mother leaves. By doing so, the nurse can provide comfort and reassurance to both the child and the mother. This approach acknowledges the mother's need to leave while ensuring the child is not left alone and is supported during the separation. Walking the mother to the elevator does not address the child's emotional needs and may not provide adequate support. Encouraging the mother to spend the night is not necessary and may not be feasible for her. Telling the mother to wait until the child falls asleep is not recommended as it may create a sense of dishonesty and uncertainty for the child, who should be aware of the mother's departure and reassured that she will return.