Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The best action for the nurse in this situation is to stay with the child while the mother leaves. By doing so, the nurse can provide comfort and reassurance to both the child and the mother. This approach acknowledges the mother's need to leave while ensuring the child is not left alone and is supported during the separation. Walking the mother to the elevator does not address the child's emotional needs and may not provide adequate support. Encouraging the mother to spend the night is not necessary and may not be feasible for her. Telling the mother to wait until the child falls asleep is not recommended as it may create a sense of dishonesty and uncertainty for the child, who should be aware of the mother's departure and reassured that she will return.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would monitor for excessive worry. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by physical and cognitive symptoms of chronic or excessive anxiety and worry. Excessive worry is a core feature of generalized anxiety disorder. Hoarding is a symptom of hoarding disorder, not generalized anxiety disorder. Panic attacks are typical of panic disorder, not generalized anxiety disorder. Fear of leaving the house is a characteristic of agoraphobia, which is distinct from generalized anxiety disorder.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The best intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder is to establish clear boundaries. Individuals with this disorder struggle with impulsivity and have difficulty recognizing and respecting boundaries in their relationships. By establishing clear boundaries, it helps provide structure and consistency to the client, aiding in their treatment and management of the disorder. Exploring vocational possibilities may be important at some point, but it is not the priority intervention for managing borderline personality disorder. Discussing feelings of victimization, while common, may not be as effective initially due to the client's lack of insight and resistance. Spending 1 to 2 hours per day with the client may not be as productive as shorter, more focused interactions that are geared towards boundary reinforcement.