Questions 9

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

Question 2 of 5

A patient's Foley catheter has been discontinued. You will dispose of this patient equipment by doing which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When disposing of used patient equipment, such as a Foley catheter, that has come in contact with bodily fluids, it is considered hazardous waste. The correct procedure involves wearing gloves and placing the Foley bag and tubing into a special 'hazardous waste' container. This container is marked as 'Hazardous' and is typically red to indicate the potential danger of its contents. Placing the equipment in a regular trash can, even if placed in a paper bag, is not appropriate as it does not meet the standards for disposing of hazardous waste. Therefore, options A and B are incorrect. Similarly, simply placing the equipment in a 'hazardous waste' container after it is placed in a paper bag is also incorrect as direct disposal into the designated container while wearing gloves is the proper protocol, making option D incorrect.

Question 3 of 5

When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.

Question 4 of 5

What is the primary purpose of emergency planning?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose of emergency planning is to ensure and maintain the safety of people and the preservation of objects, such as buildings and personal possessions during emergencies or disasters. While compliance with state and federal laws regarding emergency planning is important, the main goal is to prioritize life and safety. Choices A, B, and C focus on legal compliance, which is necessary but secondary to the fundamental objective of safeguarding lives and property in emergency situations.

Question 5 of 5

Your patient who had AIDS/HIV has just died. Should you still use standard precautions as you provide post-mortem care?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Yes, you should still use standard precautions even after an HIV/AIDS patient has died. The virus can remain infectious after death, and healthcare workers need to protect themselves from potential exposure. Choice B is incorrect because while respect is important, the primary reason for using standard precautions is to prevent transmission of infectious diseases. Choice C is incorrect as the virus can still be transmissible even after the patient's death. Choice D is incorrect as using standard precautions is a matter of infection control, not a question of respect.

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