Which of the following can cause coup-contrecoup injuries?

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Question 1 of 9

Which of the following can cause coup-contrecoup injuries?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Deceleration forces occur when the head is moving and abruptly comes to a stop, such as in a car crash. This sudden deceleration can cause the brain to hit against the skull, resulting in coup-contrecoup injuries. In a coup-contrecoup injury, the brain is damaged on opposite sides due to the initial impact and the rebound effect inside the skull. Rotational forces usually result in diffuse axonal injuries rather than coup-contrecoup injuries. Deformation forces can cause focal brain injuries but not coup-contrecoup injuries. Acceleration forces typically lead to diffuse brain injuries, not coup-contrecoup injuries. Therefore, the correct answer is deceleration forces.

Question 2 of 9

The physician has decided to perform a thoracentesis based on Mr. R's assessment. Which of the following actions from the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to talk during the procedure. This is important to prevent air from being drawn into the pleural space during the thoracentesis. Choice B is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright or slightly leaning forward during the procedure to facilitate access to the pleural space. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should not perform the thoracentesis procedure, which involves inserting a needle into the pleural space - this is the physician's responsibility. Choice D is incorrect as connecting the needle to suction to remove fluid is not the appropriate procedure for a thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is typically done to remove fluid or air for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, not to connect to suction to remove fluid that has collected in the pleural space.

Question 3 of 9

The clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant and notes that the primary healthcare provider has documented a diagnosis of suspected Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse reviews the assessment findings documented in the record, knowing that which sign most likely led the mother to seek healthcare for the infant?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or aganglionic megacolon, is a congenital anomaly characterized by an absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and other areas of the affected intestine. A key clinical manifestation of Hirschsprung's disease is chronic constipation that starts in the first month of life, leading to pellet-like or ribbon-like stools that have a foul smell. Another sign is the delayed passage or absence of meconium stool in the neonatal period. In addition to foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools, bowel obstruction (especially in the neonatal period), abdominal pain and distention, and failure to thrive are also common clinical manifestations of this disorder. Options A, B, and C are not typically associated with Hirschsprung's disease, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

Question 4 of 9

What is the most appropriate suggestion regarding the diet for an 18-month-old child experiencing mild diarrhea and 'mushy' stools, but tolerating fluids and solid foods?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: For a child with mild diarrhea who is tolerating fluids and solid foods, the most appropriate diet suggestion would be to continue feeding a normal diet to prevent dehydration, reduce stool frequency and volume, and hasten recovery. Foods that are well tolerated during diarrhea include bland but nutritional options like complex carbohydrates (rice, wheat, potatoes, cereals), yogurt with live cultures, cooked vegetables, and lean meats. Mashed potatoes with baked chicken provide a balance of nutrients and are easy on the digestive system. Options A and C contain foods that may worsen diarrhea; applesauce and gelatin can be high in sugars which can exacerbate diarrhea, and cabbage may be hard to digest for some individuals. Option D of offering fluids only can affect the child's nutritional status by not providing enough essential nutrients during the recovery period.

Question 5 of 9

A 16-month-old child has just been admitted to the hospital. As the nurse assigned to this child enters the hospital room for the first time, the toddler runs to the mother, clings to her, and begins to cry. What would be the initial action by the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When encountering a 16-month-old child exhibiting fear of strangers by clinging to the parent and crying, it is essential for the nurse to explain that this behavior is expected. Fear of strangers typically emerges around 6-8 months of age and can continue into the toddler years and beyond. This behavior is a normal part of development as the child is displaying attachment and trust in familiar caregivers. Changing client care assignments, discussing 'time-out,' or suggesting the child needs extra attention are not appropriate initial actions in this situation. Changing care assignments is unnecessary and does not address the child's emotional needs. Discussing 'time-out' is not relevant as it pertains to discipline strategies for older children. Suggesting the child needs extra attention may misinterpret the situation; the child's behavior is a normal response to a new environment and does not necessarily indicate a need for additional attention.

Question 6 of 9

A 25-year-old male client has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and will take levothyroxine (Synthroid) 50 mcg/day by mouth. As part of the teaching plan, the nurse emphasizes that this medication:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that levothyroxine (Synthroid) should be taken in the morning. Taking it in the morning can help prevent interference with the client's sleeping pattern, as one of the side effects of levothyroxine is insomnia. Choice B is incorrect because levothyroxine is actually used to treat hypothyroidism and can help increase energy levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement for levothyroxine to be stored in a dark container. Choice D is incorrect because levothyroxine is more likely to increase heart rate rather than decrease it.

Question 7 of 9

The nurse is assigned to care for a child who is scheduled for an appendectomy. Select the prescriptions that the nurse anticipates will be prescribed. Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: For a child scheduled for an appendectomy, the administration of a Fleet enema is not typically required. An IV line is often initiated for fluid and medication administration, maintaining NPO status is necessary to prevent aspiration during surgery, and administering intravenous antibiotics may be part of the preoperative regimen. Therefore, the correct choice that does not apply in this case is administering a Fleet enema.

Question 8 of 9

The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is that a person with a grand mal seizure will have _______________ and the person with a petit mal seizure will not.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The major difference between a grand mal and petit mal seizure is the presence or absence of convulsive movements. Grand mal seizures are characterized by convulsive movements, including jerking of limbs and loss of consciousness. In contrast, petit mal seizures, also known as absence seizures, typically involve brief episodes of staring or eye blinking without convulsive movements. Therefore, choice A, 'convulsive movements,' is the correct answer. Choices B, 'sleep apnea,' and D, 'flaccidity,' are incorrect as they are not associated with the characteristics of grand mal or petit mal seizures. Choice C, 'atonic movements,' is also incorrect as petit mal seizures do not involve atonic movements, but rather absence behaviors such as staring spells.

Question 9 of 9

When assessing a patient suspected to have Hepatitis, a nurse notes the patient's eyes are yellow-tinged. Which of the following diagnostic results would further assist in confirming this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Elevated serum ALT levels would further confirm the diagnosis of Hepatitis. ALT is a liver enzyme, and hepatitis is a liver disease. Elevated liver enzymes, such as ALT, often indicate liver damage. Choice A, 'Decreased serum Bilirubin,' is incorrect as elevated bilirubin levels are typically seen in hepatitis due to impaired bilirubin metabolism. Choices C and D are unrelated to confirming a diagnosis of hepatitis as they describe findings not specific to liver function or hepatitis. Low RBC and Hemoglobin with increased WBCs (Choice C) suggest a different condition like anemia or infection, not specific to liver disease. Increased Blood Urea Nitrogen level (Choice D) is more indicative of kidney function rather than liver function, thus not helpful in confirming hepatitis.

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