NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following can cause coup-contrecoup injuries?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Deceleration forces occur when the head is moving and abruptly comes to a stop, such as in a car crash. This sudden deceleration can cause the brain to hit against the skull, resulting in coup-contrecoup injuries. In a coup-contrecoup injury, the brain is damaged on opposite sides due to the initial impact and the rebound effect inside the skull. Rotational forces usually result in diffuse axonal injuries rather than coup-contrecoup injuries. Deformation forces can cause focal brain injuries but not coup-contrecoup injuries. Acceleration forces typically lead to diffuse brain injuries, not coup-contrecoup injuries. Therefore, the correct answer is deceleration forces.
Question 2 of 9
When is cleft palate repair usually performed in children?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cleft palate repair timing is individualized based on the severity of the deformity and the child's size. Typically, cleft palate repair is performed between 6 months and 2 years of age. This age range allows for optimal outcomes and is often done before 12 months to promote normal speech development. Early closure of the cleft palate helps to facilitate speech development. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a cleft palate can be repaired in children, and repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years of age, not at 8 weeks or 2 months.
Question 3 of 9
How does shock typically progress?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Shock typically progresses from a compensated state to hypotensive shock over a period of hours. In the compensated phase, the body is trying to maintain perfusion. It is crucial to identify and intervene during this phase to prevent progression to hypotensive shock, where blood pressure drops significantly. If not promptly managed, hypotensive shock can rapidly deteriorate into cardiac arrest in minutes due to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the typical progression of shock stages as seen in clinical practice. Understanding the stages of shock and their timeframes is crucial for early recognition and appropriate intervention to prevent further deterioration.
Question 4 of 9
You are caring for Thomas N., a 77-year-old man with edema in his legs and a fluid restriction. You have been assigned to weigh him daily. Based on these symptoms and the care he is receiving, what disorder is he most likely affected by?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thomas N.'s symptoms of edema in his legs and fluid restriction point towards congestive heart failure (CHF) rather than dementia or diabetes. In CHF, patients often present with dependent edema in their legs due to excessive blood volume, leading to fluid intake restrictions and a low-salt diet. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in CHF to assess fluid retention or loss. Diabetes primarily affects blood sugar levels, dementia is a cognitive disorder, and 'Contiguous heart disease' is not a recognized medical term, making choices A, B, and D incorrect in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A mother brings her 5-week-old infant to the health care clinic and tells the nurse that the child has been vomiting after meals. The mother reports that the vomiting is becoming more frequent and forceful. The nurse suspects pyloric stenosis and asks the mother which assessment question to elicit data specific to this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vomiting undigested food that is not bile stained and constipation are classic symptoms of pyloric stenosis. Stools that are ribbon-like and a child who is eating poorly are signs of congenital megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease). An infant who suddenly becomes pale, cries out, and draws the legs up to the chest is demonstrating physical signs of intussusception. Crying during the evening hours, appearing to be in pain, eating well, and gaining weight are clinical manifestations of colic.
Question 6 of 9
What is the likely cause of pericarditis in a young patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In younger patients, pericarditis is typically caused by an infection commonly triggered by viruses like the Coxsackie virus, streptococcus, staphylococcus, or Haemophilus influenzae. Infectious processes are the leading cause of pericarditis in younger individuals. Heart failure, Acute MI, and Hypertension are not common causes of pericarditis in young patients. In older adults, acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a more common cause of pericarditis.
Question 7 of 9
A child is diagnosed with Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse is teaching the parents about the cause of the disease. Which statement, if made by the parent, supports that teaching was successful?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or megacolon, is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and, sometimes, extending into the colon. Choice A correctly explains the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice B is incorrect as it describes celiac disease, which is related to gluten intolerance. Choice C is inaccurate as it describes symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome, not the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice D is wrong as it pertains to lactose intolerance, not Hirschsprung's disease.
Question 8 of 9
A 3-year-old child was brought to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial action is to notify the healthcare provider of the child's status. The presenting symptoms described, such as irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions, are indicative of epiglottitis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is crucial in such cases. While preparing for an X-ray or examining the throat may be necessary, the priority is to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention by the healthcare provider. Collecting a sputum specimen is not relevant in this situation and would cause unnecessary delay. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize communication with the healthcare provider to expedite appropriate management and treatment.
Question 9 of 9
In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.