Which of the following is an appropriate tension-reduction intervention for a patient who may be escalating toward aggressive behavior?

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Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following is an appropriate tension-reduction intervention for a patient who may be escalating toward aggressive behavior?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: All of the above interventions are appropriate tension-reduction techniques for a patient in the ICU. When a patient is escalating toward aggressive behavior, it is crucial to have a range of strategies to help de-escalate the situation. Asking to speak to someone can provide emotional support and an outlet for communication. Asking to be alone can help the patient have space and time to calm down. Listening to music can be soothing and distracting. These interventions, along with additional ones like walking the hallway, watching television, writing in a journal, or requesting a PRN medication, can be helpful. It is essential to involve the patient in developing the care plan to identify triggers and effective tension-reduction techniques. Patients in escalation may not always recognize the need for intervention, so staff must be observant and offer personalized techniques to address the situation effectively.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with major depression who has lost 20 pounds in one month, has chronic low self-esteem, and a plan for suicide. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week. Which nursing intervention is most directly related to this outcome: 'Patient will refrain from gestures and attempts to harm self'?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Implementing suicide precautions is the most critical intervention in this scenario as it directly addresses the patient's safety and the prevention of self-harm. The patient's significant weight loss, chronic low self-esteem, suicide plan, and recent initiation of an antidepressant medication indicate a high risk of self-harm. Suicide precautions involve close monitoring, removing harmful objects, and ensuring a safe environment to prevent the patient from acting on suicidal thoughts. While offering high-calorie snacks and fluids, assisting the patient in identifying personal strengths, and observing for therapeutic effects of the antidepressant are important aspects of care, they do not directly address the immediate risk of self-harm that implementing suicide precautions does.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following mental health situations is considered a psychiatric emergency?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A major depressive episode with psychotic features is considered a psychiatric emergency because it poses a significant risk to the individual's safety. Psychotic features in depression can include hallucinations, delusions, or other severe symptoms that require immediate intervention. While Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD) and depression with melancholic features are serious conditions, they do not inherently represent an acute emergency that necessitates immediate hospitalization. Bipolar depression, although severe, does not inherently involve psychotic symptoms that would classify it as a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention. It's crucial to recognize the urgency and severity of major depressive episodes with psychotic features to ensure appropriate and timely treatment.

Question 5 of 9

The client is still unable to sleep despite following the progressive muscle relaxation technique routine taught by the nurse. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's initial step should be to assess the client's adherence to the original instructions. By asking the client to describe the routine they are following, the nurse gains more specific information than relying solely on a sleep diary. This information will help the nurse identify any deviations or areas needing adjustment in the technique. Encouraging the client to persist with an unsuccessful routine without evaluation is not beneficial. Adding regular exercise, although important for overall sleep health, should come after ensuring the correct execution of the relaxation technique.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse stops at a motor vehicle collision site to render aid until the emergency personnel arrive and applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely. Later the client has to have the leg amputated and sues the nurse for malpractice. Which is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The Good Samaritan Act protects healthcare professionals who provide care in good faith from malpractice claims, regardless of the client outcome. In this scenario, the nurse stopped at the scene voluntarily to render aid, which is protected under the Good Samaritan Act. This law shields individuals from legal liability when providing emergency care in good faith and without expectation of compensation. The Patient's Bill of Rights does protect clients, but in this case, the nurse's actions were protected by the Good Samaritan Act. Additionally, the state Board of Nursing would not likely revoke the nurse's license unless there was evidence of actions taken in bad faith or unreasonable care. The client would not win the lawsuit as the essential elements of malpractice, including duty, breach, causation, and damages, were not met in this situation.

Question 7 of 9

A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.

Question 8 of 9

A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg is to compare the current reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison helps determine whether the current reading is abnormal for the client. Option A, which involves informing the client that the blood pressure is high and comparing it with the previous readings, is appropriate as it educates the client and aids in accurate assessment. Option B, contacting the health care provider for medication, is premature without further assessment. Option C, replacing the cuff with a larger one, is incorrect as it may affect the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement and is not a standard practice for managing high blood pressure readings.

Question 9 of 9

A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: By determining the client's usual bedtime routine and incorporating these rituals into the care plan, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the quality of care without compromising safety. This approach respects the client's individual needs and preferences. In contrast, options B, C, and D do not address the client's sleep issue effectively and may even compromise the client's safety or standard of care. Option B fails to address the underlying problem of the client's sleep disturbance, while option C reduces the frequency of assessments, which can impact the timely identification of changes in the client's condition. Option D focuses on pain medication and daytime napping, which are not directly related to the client's current sleep difficulties.

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