NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Prep Questions
Question 1 of 5
When cleansing the genital area during perineal care, the nurse should _____________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During perineal care, when cleansing the genital area of an uncircumcised male patient, it is crucial to retract the foreskin to clean the area underneath. This helps in the removal of smegma, a substance that can accumulate and lead to bacterial growth and infection if not cleaned properly. The foreskin should then be replaced back to its original position after cleaning to ensure proper hygiene and prevent any potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific care required for an uncircumcised penis, which involves retracting and replacing the foreskin.
Question 2 of 5
A client is preparing to irrigate a colostomy. Which of the following situations is a contraindication for this type of irrigation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client with a colostomy is preparing for irrigation, it is essential to consider contraindications that could pose risks or worsen the client's condition. Diverticulitis is a contraindication for colostomy irrigation because the inflamed diverticula could be further irritated by the flushing action during irrigation, potentially leading to complications. An incontinent ostomy, irregular bowel routine, or presence of fecal material in the colostomy bag are not specific contraindications for irrigation and can be managed through appropriate techniques and interventions.
Question 3 of 5
What is the primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of a patient care meeting or conference is to determine how the healthcare team can best meet the patient's needs. These meetings involve discussions among healthcare professionals to tailor the care plan to the specific needs and preferences of the patient. Option A is incorrect because financial discussions are generally not the primary focus of patient care meetings. Option C is incorrect as the patient's physical status is usually already known and is not the primary purpose of the meeting. Option D is incorrect as psychosocial aspects, while important, are not the sole focus of the meeting, which is primarily about addressing the patient's overall needs and preferences.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates a possible nutritional deficiency?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A client with poor nutritional intake may have pale mucous membranes surrounding the eye, or the conjunctiva. This area should normally be pink, indicating good circulation and a lack of irritation or dryness. Improper nutrition can manifest as numerous signs in the body, including bowed legs, pale mucous membranes, a smooth or beefy tongue, and poor muscle tone. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen is not a sign of nutritional deficiency but rather of excess fat deposition. The presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue is normal and not indicative of a nutritional deficiency. Straight arms and legs are also typical anatomical features and not specifically related to nutritional deficiencies.
Question 5 of 5
A client has died approximately one hour ago. The nurse notes that the client's temperature has decreased in the last hour since their death. Which of the following processes explains this phenomenon?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Algor mortis occurs after death when the body's circulation stops, and the client's temperature begins to fall. The client's temperature will drop by approximately 1.8 degrees per hour until it reaches room temperature. During algor mortis, the client's skin gradually loses its elasticity. Rigor mortis refers to the stiffening of the body after death due to chemical changes in the muscles. Postmortem decomposition is the breakdown of tissues after death. Livor mortis is the pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body, causing a purple-red discoloration.
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