NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The wife of a client who is dying says, 'I want to see him, but I can only come twice a week because of work, household chores, and caring for our cat and dog.' Which defense mechanism is the wife using?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The wife is using rationalization as a defense mechanism. Rationalization involves offering a socially acceptable or logical explanation to justify an unacceptable feeling or behavior. In this scenario, the wife justifies her limited visits to her dying husband by citing other responsibilities such as work, household chores, and pet care. Projection involves denying one's unacceptable feelings and attributing them to others. Sublimation is the substitution of unacceptable feelings or drives with socially acceptable behaviors. Compensation involves making up for a perceived deficiency by emphasizing another perceived asset.
Question 2 of 5
Which action often triggers an episode of violence or aggression in a patient with a psychiatric diagnosis involving violent behavior?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enforcing rules is often a trigger for patients with psychiatric diagnoses involving violent behavior. Limit-setting or denying patient demands can be perceived as control and intimidation, leading to aggressive responses. Nursing staff must respond calmly and professionally to prevent escalation. Avoiding such patients or matching their emotions can worsen the situation. Therefore, enforcing rules can provoke violent episodes in these patients.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following is a true statement about palliative care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Palliative care is a type of care that focuses on providing support and comfort to individuals who may have a terminal illness or severe symptoms. It aims to improve the quality of life for both the individual receiving care and their family. While it can be provided in various settings, including hospitals, homes, or specialized facilities, the primary focus is on symptom management and addressing the physical, emotional, and spiritual needs of the individual. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care is not solely limited to end-of-life care but also includes managing symptoms and improving quality of life. Choice C is incorrect as palliative care is focused on providing care and support during the individual's life, not on funeral arrangements after death. Choice D is incorrect as palliative care is primarily directed towards the individual receiving care, although it may also provide support to their family and friends during the care process.
Question 5 of 5
According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.