The nurse is assessing an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), one of the key findings is unequal leg length. This occurs due to the dislocation of the hip joint, where the ball is loose in the socket. Limited adduction, the inability to bring the hip and knee towards the midline of the body, is also a common finding in DDH. Diminished femoral pulses are not typically associated with DDH, as it primarily affects the skeletal structure rather than vascular supply. Symmetrical gluteal folds are normal in infants and do not indicate DDH, as asymmetry in gluteal folds can be a sign of hip dislocation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When administering a-interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol) for chronic hepatitis C, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. This combination therapy is known to cause leukopenia, not polycythemia or hypoglycemia. Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance that can occur with these medications, making it the correct answer to monitor for in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's first action should be to massage the fundus until it is firm as uterine atony is the primary cause of bleeding in the first hour after delivery. Massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions, which can help control the bleeding. Checking vital signs would be important but addressing the primary cause of bleeding takes precedence. Offering a bedpan is not a priority in this situation as the focus should be on managing the postpartum bleeding. Checking for perineal lacerations is also important but not the initial action needed to address the boggy uterus and vaginal bleeding.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the oral-fecal route. During the acute phase of hepatitis A, serologic testing typically reveals anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM). This antibody appears early in the course of the infection. The presence of anti-HAV IgM indicates an acute infection with hepatitis A. Choices A and B are incorrect as hepatitis D and hepatitis B antigens are not typically associated with acute hepatitis A. Choice C, anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG), would indicate a past infection and lifelong immunity, which is not expected during the acute phase of the illness.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The patient is alert and oriented.' In a patient with advanced cirrhosis, lactulose is used to lower ammonia levels and prevent encephalopathy. A patient being alert and oriented indicates that the medication is effective in achieving this goal. While lactulose may help with constipation, the primary purpose in cirrhosis is to reduce ammonia levels, not to address constipation directly. Denying nausea or anorexia is not a specific indicator of lactulose's effectiveness in treating cirrhosis. Bilirubin levels decreasing are not directly related to lactulose's therapeutic effect on cirrhosis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the case of exposure to hepatitis B, the nurse should plan to administer hepatitis B vaccine to provide active immunity. Testing for antibodies to hepatitis B is essential to determine the individual's immune status. Giving hepatitis B immune globulin is necessary for passive immunity in cases of exposure. However, teaching about alpha-interferon therapy is not part of the standard management for hepatitis B exposure. Interferon therapy and oral antivirals are typically used in the treatment of chronic hepatitis B infections, not for prophylaxis after exposure.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (Choice A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (Choice B) and Potassium (Choice D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.