NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse cares for a patient who has just had a thoracentesis. Which assessment information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Oxygen saturation is 88%.' Following a thoracentesis, oxygen saturation should improve. A saturation of 88% suggests a potential complication like pneumothorax. While the other assessment findings are important, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. High blood pressure and respiratory rate may also need attention, but the immediate concern is the oxygen saturation level. Pain level, though significant for the patient's comfort, takes lower priority compared to the potential life-threatening issue of hypoxia.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is admitted to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and is diagnosed with a possible pulmonary embolus. How should the nurse prepare the patient for diagnostic testing to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For diagnosing pulmonary emboli, spiral computed tomography (CT) scans are commonly used, and contrast media may be given intravenously (IV) during the scan to enhance visualization of blood vessels. Chest x-rays are not typically diagnostic for pulmonary embolism. When preparing for a chest x-ray, the patient needs to undress and remove any metal objects. Bronchoscopy is used for examining the bronchial tree, not for assessing vascular changes, and the patient should be NPO 6 to 12 hours before the procedure. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans are primarily used to detect malignancies, and a radioactive glucose preparation is utilized for this purpose.
Question 3 of 9
While auscultating a patient's lungs, the nurse hears low-pitched, bubbling sounds during inhalation in the lower third of both lungs. How should the nurse document this finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Inspiratory crackles at the bases.' Crackles are low-pitched, bubbling sounds typically heard during inspiration, which aligns with the nurse's finding. Expiratory wheezes are high-pitched sounds and are not consistent with the described auscultation findings. The lower third of both lungs refers to the bases, not the apices, so option C is incorrect. Pleural friction rubs are grating sounds heard during both inspiration and expiration, unlike the described finding of only hearing the sounds during inhalation in the lower third of both lungs.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with newly diagnosed lung cancer tells the nurse, 'I don't think I'm going to live to see my next birthday.' Which response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's initial response should be to collect more assessment data about the patient's statement. The answer beginning 'Can you tell me what it is' is the most open-ended question and will offer the best opportunity for obtaining more data. The answer beginning 'Are you afraid' implies that the patient thinks that the cancer will be immediately fatal, although the patient's statement may not be related to the cancer diagnosis. The remaining two answers offer interventions that may be helpful to the patient, but more assessment is needed to determine whether these interventions are appropriate.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.
Question 6 of 9
A client is found unresponsive in his room by a nurse. The client is not breathing and does not have a pulse. After calling for help, what is the next action the nurse should take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After finding an unresponsive client who is not breathing and has no pulse, the nurse's immediate action should be to call for help and start chest compressions. Chest compressions should be initiated at a rate of at least 100 per minute and a depth of at least 2 inches. Choice A, administering ventilations, is not the initial step as compressions take priority. Choice B, performing a head-tilt, chin lift, is also not the first step; chest compressions are crucial before airway management. Choice D, performing a jaw thrust, is typically used in cases of suspected cervical spine injury and is not the immediate action in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with acute dyspnea is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan. Which information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider before the CT?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Because iodine-based contrast media is used during a spiral CT, the patient may need to have the CT scan without contrast or be premedicated before injection of the contrast media. The increased pulse, low oxygen saturation, and tachypnea all indicate a need for further assessment or intervention but do not indicate a need to modify the CT procedure.
Question 8 of 9
An alcoholic and homeless patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention by the nurse will be most effective in ensuring adherence with the treatment regimen?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Directly observed therapy is the most effective means for ensuring compliance with the treatment regimen for a homeless patient with active tuberculosis. By arranging a daily noon meal at a community center where the drug will be administered, the nurse ensures that the patient is available to receive the medication and can directly observe the patient taking it. This method helps address the challenges faced by homeless individuals, such as lack of a stable living situation. The other options, such as having a friend administer the medication, giving written instructions, or educating about infecting others, may not be as effective in ensuring adherence, especially in the case of a homeless individual with alcoholism.
Question 9 of 9
A client was recently diagnosed with diverticulosis. What types of foods should the nurse recommend for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diverticulosis is a condition characterized by small protrusions in the intestinal tract. To manage diverticulosis, a high-fiber diet is recommended. Foods rich in fiber help prevent constipation and reduce the risk of inflammation in the intestines. Whole grain cereals are an excellent source of fiber and can aid in maintaining bowel regularity. Eggs, cottage cheese, and fish are not high-fiber foods and may not provide the necessary dietary support for a client with diverticulosis. While protein-rich foods like eggs and fish are beneficial for overall health, they are not the primary recommendation for managing diverticulosis.