NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.
Question 2 of 9
While assessing a one-month-old infant, which of the findings does not warrant further investigation by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Abdominal respirations in infants are considered normal due to the underdeveloped intercostal muscles. Infants rely more on their abdominal muscles to facilitate breathing since their intercostal muscles are not fully matured. Therefore, abdominal respirations do not typically require further investigation. Inspiratory grunt, nasal flaring, and cyanosis are findings that warrant additional assessment as they can indicate potential respiratory distress or other underlying health issues in infants. Inspiratory grunt may suggest respiratory distress, nasal flaring can be a sign of increased work of breathing, and cyanosis indicates poor oxygenation, all of which require prompt evaluation and intervention to ensure the infant's well-being.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with peripheral vascular disease is receiving discharge instructions. Which of the following information should be included?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Patients with peripheral vascular disease should be advised to avoid crossing their legs as this can impede blood flow. Peripheral vascular disease, also known as arteriosclerosis obliterans, is primarily caused by atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis results in the gradual progression of arterial occlusion due to the formation of atheromas. Crossed legs can further restrict blood flow, exacerbating the condition. Walking barefoot should be discouraged to prevent potential injuries to the feet. Using a heating pad can lead to burns and should be avoided to prevent thermal injuries. While using antibacterial ointment for skin lesions may be beneficial, it is not the priority instruction for patients with peripheral vascular disease.
Question 4 of 9
The client has a long leg cast. During discharge teaching about appropriate exercises for the affected extremity, the nurse should recommend:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should recommend isometric exercises for the muscles of the casted extremity. Isometric exercises involve contracting and relaxing muscles without moving the affected part. This type of exercise helps maintain muscle strength without moving the joint, which is important for clients with immobilized extremities. Range of motion exercises involve moving the joint through its full range of motion, which may not be suitable for a client with a long leg cast. Aerobic exercises focus on increasing cardiovascular endurance and may not be appropriate for a client with a casted extremity. Isotonic exercises involve muscle contractions with movement, which may not be safe for the affected extremity in a cast.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who had back surgery. All of the following indicate that the client is ready for discharge EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When determining if a client is ready for discharge after back surgery, it is essential to ensure that there are no signs of complications or emerging issues. A postoperative temperature of 100.8°F may indicate a developing infection, and the client should not be discharged until this is further evaluated by the physician. Choices A, B, and C are indicators that the client is progressing well and ready for discharge, as having sutures, being able to shower, and using an ice pack are typically expected postoperative activities without indicating a need for further hospitalization.
Question 6 of 9
A new mother has some questions about phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the levels of phenylalanine (a building block of proteins) in the blood. If PKU is not treated, phenylalanine can build up to harmful levels in the body, causing intellectual disability and other serious health problems. The signs and symptoms of PKU vary from mild to severe. The most severe form of this disorder is known as classic PKU. Infants with classic PKU appear normal until they are a few months old. Without treatment, these children develop a permanent intellectual disability. Seizures, delayed development, behavioral problems, and psychiatric disorders are also common. Untreated individuals may have a musty or mouse-like odor as a side effect of excess phenylalanine in the body. Children with classic PKU tend to have lighter skin and hair than unaffected family members and are also likely to have skin disorders such as eczema. The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life (via Genetic Home Reference).
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following components is associated with hypertonic dehydration?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Water loss is greater than electrolyte loss.' In hypertonic dehydration, there is a higher loss of water compared to electrolytes, leading to elevated concentrations of electrolytes in the body. This condition is characterized by plasma sodium levels above 150 mEq/L. As water moves from the extracellular space to the intracellular space, it results in cellular dehydration. Choice A is incorrect because the plasma sodium levels associated with hypertonic dehydration are typically above 150 mEq/L, not between 130 and 150 mEq/L. Choice B is incorrect as fluid moves from the extracellular space to the intracellular space in hypertonic dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because physical signs and symptoms may not always be grossly apparent in hypertonic dehydration.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.
Question 9 of 9
A 23-year-old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, the most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs, known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These clots can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Myocardial infarction (Choice A) is less likely in a young patient without a significant history of atherosclerosis. Anxiety attacks (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but are less likely in this context. Congestive heart failure (Choice D) is less probable given the acute onset of symptoms and absence of typical signs like peripheral edema in this case.