NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Signs and symptoms of stroke may include all of the following EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypotension is not a typical sign or symptom of an acute stroke. The correct signs and symptoms of a stroke include sudden weakness or numbness of the face, arm, or leg, sudden confusion, and a sudden headache with no known cause. Hypotension, which refers to low blood pressure, is not a common indicator of a stroke. It is important to differentiate between hypotension and hypertension in the context of stroke symptoms, as hypertension (high blood pressure) is actually a risk factor for strokes. Sudden weakness, numbness, confusion, and headache are signs associated with a stroke due to a disruption in blood flow to the brain. Hypotension, on the other hand, primarily indicates low blood pressure and is not directly linked to the typical presentation of a stroke.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following glands found in the skin secretes a liquid called Sebum?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sebum is a liquid secreted by glands in the skin known as sebaceous glands. Sebum's primary function is to lubricate the skin and help maintain its integrity. Apocrine glands secrete a different type of sweat that is odorless but can develop an odor when combined with bacteria on the skin. Lacrimal glands produce tears to keep the eyes moist, and sweat glands secrete sweat to regulate body temperature through evaporation. Therefore, the correct answer is Sebaceous Glands because they specifically secrete sebum, distinguishing them from the other gland types mentioned.
Question 3 of 9
A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chlamydial infections are one of the most common causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Chlamydia can ascend from the vagina or cervix to the reproductive organs, leading to inflammation and infection. Trichomoniasis, caused by a parasite, typically presents with different symptoms than pelvic inflammatory disease and is not the primary cause. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are bacteria that can cause other types of infections but are not the primary culprits in most cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In caring for a client with severe depression, safety is a critical priority. The nurse must address precautions to prevent suicide as part of the care plan. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, safety takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm associated with depression. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent self-harm or suicide is the priority intervention. Addressing nutrition, elimination, and activity can follow once the client's safety is assured.
Question 5 of 9
The physician has decided to perform a thoracentesis based on Mr. R's assessment. Which of the following actions from the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to talk during the procedure. This is important to prevent air from being drawn into the pleural space during the thoracentesis. Choice B is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright or slightly leaning forward during the procedure to facilitate access to the pleural space. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should not perform the thoracentesis procedure, which involves inserting a needle into the pleural space - this is the physician's responsibility. Choice D is incorrect as connecting the needle to suction to remove fluid is not the appropriate procedure for a thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is typically done to remove fluid or air for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, not to connect to suction to remove fluid that has collected in the pleural space.
Question 6 of 9
A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.
Question 7 of 9
A child diagnosed with Hepatitis A is under the care of a healthcare provider. Which of the following precautions would be most important to take to prevent the transmission of this infectious disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial precaution to prevent the transmission of Hepatitis A is to emphasize strict and frequent hand washing. Hepatitis A is a virus that spreads through the oral-fecal route and can survive on human hands. Hand washing is the most effective measure to reduce the risk of transmission. Encouraging the Hepatitis A vaccine for family members and siblings (Choice A) is beneficial for prevention but not as directly impactful as hand washing. While needle precautions (Choice B) are important in healthcare settings, they are not directly relevant to preventing the spread of Hepatitis A. Teaching about the dangers of contaminated food and water (Choice D) is important for general hygiene but may not be as effective as emphasizing hand hygiene in preventing the spread of Hepatitis A.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old upon admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary output of 30 ml per hour. In a 10-year-old child, this level of urinary output is indicative of adequate fluid replacement without suggesting overload. Monitoring urinary output is crucial in assessing fluid balance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. No complaints of thirst do not provide a direct assessment of fluid status. Increased hematocrit is a sign of dehydration, not adequate fluid replacement. Good skin turgor around the burn is a general assessment but may not directly reflect the child's overall fluid status.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has come into the emergency room after an injury at work in which their upper body was pinned between two pieces of equipment. The nurse notes bruising in the upper abdomen and chest. The patient is complaining of sharp chest pain, having difficulty breathing, and their trachea is deviated to the left side. Which of the following conditions are these symptoms most closely associated with?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient is most likely suffering from a right-sided pneumothorax. Symptoms of a pneumothorax include sharp chest pain, difficulties with breathing, decreased vocal fremitus, absent breath sounds, and tracheal shift to the opposite of the affected side. In this case, the patient's trachea is deviated to the left side, indicating a right-sided pneumothorax. Choices A, B, and C can be eliminated as they do not present with the specific symptoms described in the scenario. Left-sided pneumothorax would not cause tracheal deviation to the left side. Pleural effusion typically presents with dull chest pain and decreased breath sounds, not sharp chest pain and tracheal deviation. Atelectasis would not cause tracheal deviation and is more associated with lung collapse rather than air accumulation in the pleural space.