A child presents to the emergency department with colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant. What disorder is suspected based on these symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The child's presentation of colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant is classic for appendicitis. Appendicitis typically presents with localized pain that starts near the umbilicus and then shifts to the right lower quadrant. Peritonitis, on the other hand, is characterized by diffuse abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, usually resulting from organ perforation or intestinal obstruction. Intussusception is associated with acute, severe abdominal pain and currant jelly-like stools due to intestinal telescoping. Hirschsprung's disease, which lacks ganglion cells in the colon, manifests with symptoms like constipation, abdominal distension, and foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct initial action is to notify the healthcare provider of the child's status. The presenting symptoms described, such as irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions, are indicative of epiglottitis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is crucial in such cases. While preparing for an X-ray or examining the throat may be necessary, the priority is to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention by the healthcare provider. Collecting a sputum specimen is not relevant in this situation and would cause unnecessary delay. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize communication with the healthcare provider to expedite appropriate management and treatment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital. This individual is at the highest risk of contracting Hepatitis B due to exposure in a healthcare setting where potential bloodborne pathogens are present. Being sexually active also increases the risk of transmission through sexual contact. Choice A, a 45-year-old man with Type 1 Diabetes, is not directly associated with an increased risk of Hepatitis B. Choice B, a 75-year-old woman living in a crowded nursing home, is at risk for other infections due to the living environment but not specifically for Hepatitis B. Choice C, a child in a country with poor sanitation, is more at risk for water or foodborne illnesses rather than Hepatitis B transmission.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In a patient in shock, increasing blood pressure is not a sign that compensatory mechanisms are failing. As shock progresses and compensatory mechanisms fail, systolic blood pressure will decrease, leading to hypotension, which is a late and ominous sign in these patients. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are warning signs of failing compensatory mechanisms in shock: an increasing heart rate above normal, absent peripheral pulses, and decreasing level of consciousness, respectively. An increasing blood pressure is not indicative of compensatory failure in shock; instead, it may be a sign of compensatory mechanisms still trying to maintain perfusion pressure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Sebum is a liquid secreted by glands in the skin known as sebaceous glands. Sebum's primary function is to lubricate the skin and help maintain its integrity. Apocrine glands secrete a different type of sweat that is odorless but can develop an odor when combined with bacteria on the skin. Lacrimal glands produce tears to keep the eyes moist, and sweat glands secrete sweat to regulate body temperature through evaporation. Therefore, the correct answer is Sebaceous Glands because they specifically secrete sebum, distinguishing them from the other gland types mentioned.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the management of acute bronchitis, antibiotics are not typically prescribed unless there is a confirmed bacterial infection. Acute bronchitis is usually caused by a virus, so antibiotics are not effective in treating it. The primary focus is on symptom management and supportive care. Increased fluid intake helps keep the airway moist and liquefy secretions, aiding in their removal. Cough medications can help relieve cough symptoms. The use of a vaporizer can help moisten the air, making breathing more comfortable for the patient. It is crucial to differentiate between viral and bacterial causes of respiratory infections to avoid unnecessary antibiotic use and prevent antibiotic resistance. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Antibiotics.' Increased fluid intake, cough medications, and the use of a vaporizer are commonly recommended for managing symptoms and improving comfort in patients with acute bronchitis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition in which a proximal segment of the bowel telescopes or prolapses into a distal segment of the bowel. This leads to bowel obstruction and potential ischemia. It is not an acute bowel obstruction, as the obstruction is caused by the telescoping of bowel segments rather than a blockage in the bowel lumen. Intussusception is not primarily an inflammatory process; instead, it is a mechanical issue involving bowel invagination. Choice A is incorrect as it does not accurately describe the pathophysiology of intussusception. Choice C is incorrect because it presents the opposite scenario of what happens in intussusception.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Implementation.' In the nursing process, implementation involves carrying out the planned interventions to meet the patient's goals. Encouraging the patient to attend a psychoeducational group daily is an intervention aimed at building social skills. Assessment (choice A) is the phase where data about the patient's condition is collected. Analysis (choice B) involves interpreting the gathered data. Planning (choice C) is where the nurse decides on the interventions to address the patient's needs. Therefore, in this scenario, recording the item 'Encourage patient to attend one psychoeducational group daily' would be part of the implementation phase.