NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following conditions increases a client's risk of aspiration of stomach contents?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client in restraints is at an increased risk of aspiration of stomach contents. When a client is restrained, they may be unable to effectively move or turn their body if they begin to vomit, which can lead to aspiration. This lack of mobility can hinder their ability to protect their airway. On the other hand, a scaphoid abdomen, which is sunken or hollowed, is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Additionally, lying prone, facing downward, does not necessarily increase the risk of aspiration, as aspiration is more likely when lying supine (facing upward). Therefore, the correct answer is that a client is in restraints.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assisting a pregnant client who is having an amniocentesis. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates the correct teaching for this procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An amniocentesis is performed to draw amniotic luid from the sac around the fetus during pregnancy. It may be analyzed for certain disorders or complications associated with pregnancy. Following the procedure, the nurse should wash the client's abdomen and place a small bandage over the puncture site
Question 4 of 9
A client with a broken femur is in a traction splint in bed. Which of the following interventions is NOT part of caring for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client with a broken femur in a traction splint, turning the client to a side-lying position is not recommended. This client is at risk of skin breakdown and complications due to the injury, making it important to prevent unnecessary movement that may increase the risk of injury or discomfort. Palpating the temperature of both feet helps in assessing circulation, evaluating pulses bilaterally ensures perfusion to the extremities, and relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot helps in reducing pressure points and preventing complications like pressure ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is turning the client to a side-lying position as it is not a recommended intervention in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
While caring for a client who has just come from surgery and is in the recovery room with an endotracheal tube in place, the nurse deflates the cuff on the tube and removes it. The client sits up in bed, grasps his throat, and begins to make wheezing sounds. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this situation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After surgery, some clients may experience a laryngospasm during emergence from anesthesia. A laryngospasm can lead to the closure of the laryngeal opening due to spasm of the vocal cords. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of wheezing and throat grasping are indicative of a laryngospasm rather than choking on the tube, anxiety, or a normal response from anesthesia. The nurse should act promptly to open the airway to aid breathing and consider administering muscle relaxants as necessary.
Question 6 of 9
A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following situations warrants a measurement for orthostatic hypotension?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a 58-year-old female with near-syncope. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg systolic when moving from a sitting or lying position to standing. Patients at higher risk include those with syncope or near-syncope, symptomatic hypovolemia, and those prone to falls. The other choices are less likely to present with orthostatic hypotension. A spinal injury, altered mental status, and acute deep vein thrombosis are not directly associated with the immediate need for orthostatic hypotension measurement.
Question 9 of 9
A client has started sweating profusely due to intense heat. His overall luid volume is low and he has developed electrolyte imbalance. This client is most likely suffering from:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.