Mrs. F has been diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following complications is Mrs. F at highest risk of developing?

Questions 45

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Mrs. F has been diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following complications is Mrs. F at highest risk of developing?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The parathyroid glands regulate calcium, vitamin D, and phosphorus in the body. Hyperparathyroidism leads to excessive production of parathyroid hormone, causing the release of calcium from bones into the bloodstream, resulting in elevated blood calcium levels, known as hypercalcemia. This puts individuals at risk of developing complications such as kidney stones, bone pain, osteoporosis, and neuropsychiatric symptoms. The other options, hyponatremia, hypocalcemia, and hypermagnesemia, are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism. Hyponatremia is low sodium levels in the blood, hypocalcemia is low calcium levels, and hypermagnesemia is high magnesium levels, which are not typically seen in hyperparathyroidism.

Question 2 of 5

A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

Question 3 of 5

A client returns from surgery after having a colon resection. The nurse is performing an assessment and notes the wound edges have separated. This condition is called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Wound dehiscence occurs when the edges of a wound pull apart. The condition may occur following a surgical procedure if the sutures were deficient. Wound dehiscence may also occur following a wound infection or in cases where a client significantly stretches or overuses the associated tissues. Evisceration refers to the protrusion of internal organs through an open wound. Hematoma is a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels. Granulation is the formation of new connective tissue and tiny blood vessels on the surface of a wound during the healing process.

Question 4 of 5

The OR nursing staff are preparing a client for a surgical procedure. The anesthesiologist has given the client medications, and the client has entered the induction stage of anesthesia. The nursing staff can expect which of the following symptoms and activities from the client during this time?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: During the induction stage of anesthesia, the client may exhibit symptoms like euphoria, drowsiness, or dizziness. This stage occurs after the administration of medications by the anesthesiologist and ends when the client loses consciousness. Choice A is incorrect as irregular breathing patterns are not typically associated with the induction stage. Choice B is incorrect as minimal heartbeat and dilated pupils are not commonly observed during this stage. Choice C is incorrect as relaxed muscles, regular breathing, and constricted pupils are not indicative of the induction stage of anesthesia.

Question 5 of 5

A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

Access More Questions!

NCLEX RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

NCLEX RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions