Mr. Y had surgery two days ago and is recovering on the surgical unit of the hospital. Just before lunch, he develops chest pain and difficulties with breathing. His respiratory rate is 32/minute, his temperature is 100.8°F, and he has rales on auscultation. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate in this situation?

Questions 45

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Question 1 of 9

Mr. Y had surgery two days ago and is recovering on the surgical unit of the hospital. Just before lunch, he develops chest pain and difficulties with breathing. His respiratory rate is 32/minute, his temperature is 100.8°F, and he has rales on auscultation. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate in this situation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, mild fever, and rales or crackles on auscultation in a client who had surgery 2 days ago may be indicative of a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should administer oxygen to address his breathing and assist him to a comfortable position to facilitate better oxygenation before contacting the physician. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended in this situation as it may worsen a potential pulmonary embolism by increasing venous return. Contacting the physician for antibiotics is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the breathing difficulty. Decreasing the IV rate is not indicated in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory distress and needs oxygen therapy.

Question 2 of 9

While caring for a client who has just come from surgery and is in the recovery room with an endotracheal tube in place, the nurse deflates the cuff on the tube and removes it. The client sits up in bed, grasps his throat, and begins to make wheezing sounds. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this situation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: After surgery, some clients may experience a laryngospasm during emergence from anesthesia. A laryngospasm can lead to the closure of the laryngeal opening due to spasm of the vocal cords. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of wheezing and throat grasping are indicative of a laryngospasm rather than choking on the tube, anxiety, or a normal response from anesthesia. The nurse should act promptly to open the airway to aid breathing and consider administering muscle relaxants as necessary.

Question 3 of 9

A client returns from surgery after having a colon resection. The nurse is performing an assessment and notes the wound edges have separated. This condition is called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Wound dehiscence occurs when the edges of a wound pull apart. The condition may occur following a surgical procedure if the sutures were deficient. Wound dehiscence may also occur following a wound infection or in cases where a client significantly stretches or overuses the associated tissues. Evisceration refers to the protrusion of internal organs through an open wound. Hematoma is a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels. Granulation is the formation of new connective tissue and tiny blood vessels on the surface of a wound during the healing process.

Question 4 of 9

A client is being monitored for decreased tissue perfusion and increased risk of skin breakdown. Which measure best improves tissue perfusion in this client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: For a client at risk of impaired skin integrity due to decreased tissue perfusion, improving mobility is crucial to enhance tissue perfusion and prevent skin breakdown. Range of motion exercises are beneficial to increase circulation and prevent complications. Massaging reddened areas may further damage fragile skin. Administering antithrombotics may be necessary for specific conditions but does not directly address tissue perfusion. Feeding a high-carbohydrate diet does not directly improve tissue perfusion in this context.

Question 5 of 9

A client has started sweating profusely due to intense heat. His overall luid volume is low and he has developed electrolyte imbalance. This client is most likely suffering from:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 6 of 9

A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following conditions may cause an increased respiratory rate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Anemia can lead to an increased respiratory rate. In anemia, there are decreased levels of hemoglobin in red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues. To compensate for the reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, the body increases the respiratory rate to bring in more oxygen. Stooped posture (Choice A) is not directly related to an increased respiratory rate. Narcotic analgesics (Choice B) are more likely to cause a decreased respiratory rate due to their central nervous system depressant effects. Injury to the brain stem (Choice C) can affect respiratory function but may not necessarily lead to an increased respiratory rate.

Question 8 of 9

A client with a broken femur is in a traction splint in bed. Which of the following interventions is NOT part of caring for this client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a broken femur in a traction splint, turning the client to a side-lying position is not recommended. This client is at risk of skin breakdown and complications due to the injury, making it important to prevent unnecessary movement that may increase the risk of injury or discomfort. Palpating the temperature of both feet helps in assessing circulation, evaluating pulses bilaterally ensures perfusion to the extremities, and relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot helps in reducing pressure points and preventing complications like pressure ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is turning the client to a side-lying position as it is not a recommended intervention in this scenario.

Question 9 of 9

Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.

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