NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Predictor Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
When are manual hematocrits done?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Manual hematocrits are performed to monitor anemia, which involves measuring the percentage of red blood cells in the blood. The process involves collecting blood in a microhematocrit tube, then centrifuging it to separate the plasma from the cells. By measuring the ratio of plasma to cells, healthcare providers can assess the patient's hematocrit level. Therefore, all the provided options are correct as they collectively describe the purpose and procedure of manual hematocrits.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has come to the office for a blood draw. The patient starts to sweat and is very anxious. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario where a patient is sweating and anxious, it is important to assess for signs of potential syncope (fainting) while proceeding with the blood draw. If the patient does not exhibit signs of fainting, the phlebotomy procedure can be performed safely. Postponing the procedure may not address the patient's anxiety and inconvenience them. Having the physician draw the blood is not necessary if the phlebotomist can handle the situation effectively.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.
Question 4 of 5
What is the MOST ACCURATE statement regarding the ESR test?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.
Question 5 of 5
For a patient who is blood type AB, which blood product can they receive?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A patient with blood type AB has AB antigens on their red blood cells. This means they can only receive blood products that are compatible with these antigens. Choice A is incorrect because an AB patient cannot receive plasma from a type B donor due to the antibodies present in type B plasma. Choice B is incorrect because an AB patient cannot receive whole blood from a type A donor as it contains incompatible antigens. Choice C is the correct answer because an AB patient can receive packed RBCs from a type O donor. Type O donors have no A or B antigens, making their blood compatible for transfusion to recipients with any blood type. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect, and the correct choice is C.