NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
How does shock typically progress?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Shock typically progresses from a compensated state to hypotensive shock over a period of hours. In the compensated phase, the body is trying to maintain perfusion. It is crucial to identify and intervene during this phase to prevent progression to hypotensive shock, where blood pressure drops significantly. If not promptly managed, hypotensive shock can rapidly deteriorate into cardiac arrest in minutes due to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the typical progression of shock stages as seen in clinical practice. Understanding the stages of shock and their timeframes is crucial for early recognition and appropriate intervention to prevent further deterioration.
Question 2 of 9
The healthcare professional calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving an antibiotic. The patient is to receive 100mL of the antibiotic over 30 minutes. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 10 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare professional set the IV to deliver?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the IV flow rate, you can use the formula: Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters to be infused x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. Substituting the given values, you get 100 mL x 10 drops/mL / 30 minutes = 33 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 33, as the healthcare professional should set the IV to deliver 33 drops per minute to infuse the antibiotic correctly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drops per minute based on the provided values.
Question 3 of 9
A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.
Question 4 of 9
After repair of an inguinal hernia, the infant is being cared for. Which assessment finding indicates that the surgical repair was effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The absence of inguinal swelling when the infant cries or strains indicates that the surgical repair of the inguinal hernia was effective. Inguinal swelling typically occurs with crying or straining in cases of this condition. A clean, dry incision signifies the absence of wound infection post-surgery but does not directly indicate the effectiveness of the hernia repair. Abdominal distension suggests a gastrointestinal issue unrelated to the hernia repair. An adequate flow of urine is not specific to evaluating the success of inguinal hernia repair.
Question 5 of 9
A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chlamydial infections are one of the most common causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Chlamydia can ascend from the vagina or cervix to the reproductive organs, leading to inflammation and infection. Trichomoniasis, caused by a parasite, typically presents with different symptoms than pelvic inflammatory disease and is not the primary cause. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are bacteria that can cause other types of infections but are not the primary culprits in most cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following factors may alter the level of consciousness in a patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Various factors can lead to altered levels of consciousness in a patient. Alcohol consumption can depress the central nervous system and cause changes in consciousness. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia or hypernatremia, can disrupt brain function and affect consciousness. Infections, especially those affecting the brain like encephalitis, can also lead to alterations in consciousness. Therefore, all of the choices provided - Alcohol, Electrolytes, and Infection - can potentially cause changes in the level of consciousness. Remember the acronym AEIOU-TIPPS to recall common causes of decreased level of consciousness, including Alcohol, Electrolytes, and Infection, among others.
Question 7 of 9
During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.
Question 8 of 9
Your patient has been diagnosed with acute bronchitis. You should expect that all of the following will be ordered EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the management of acute bronchitis, antibiotics are not typically prescribed unless there is a confirmed bacterial infection. Acute bronchitis is usually caused by a virus, so antibiotics are not effective in treating it. The primary focus is on symptom management and supportive care. Increased fluid intake helps keep the airway moist and liquefy secretions, aiding in their removal. Cough medications can help relieve cough symptoms. The use of a vaporizer can help moisten the air, making breathing more comfortable for the patient. It is crucial to differentiate between viral and bacterial causes of respiratory infections to avoid unnecessary antibiotic use and prevent antibiotic resistance. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Antibiotics.' Increased fluid intake, cough medications, and the use of a vaporizer are commonly recommended for managing symptoms and improving comfort in patients with acute bronchitis.
Question 9 of 9
The clinic nurse is obtaining data about a child with a diagnosis of lactose intolerance. Which data should the nurse expect to obtain on assessment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lactose intolerance commonly presents with frothy stools and diarrhea due to the inability to digest lactose. Other symptoms include abdominal distension, crampy abdominal pain, and excessive flatus. Foul-smelling ribbon stools are indicative of Hirschsprung's disease, not lactose intolerance. Profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting are more characteristic of celiac disease. Diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity is a typical symptom of irritable bowel syndrome, not lactose intolerance.