For the nursing diagnostic statement, Self-care deficit: feeding related to bilateral fractured wrists in casts, what is the major related factor or risk factor identified by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fractured wrists.' In a nursing diagnostic statement, the related factor or risk factor is the underlying cause of the identified problem. In this case, the major factor affecting the self-care deficit in feeding is the bilateral fractured wrists in casts. The fractured wrists directly impact the client's ability to feed themselves, making it the primary related factor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as discomfort, deficit, and feeding are not the primary cause of the feeding problem in this scenario; rather, it is the physical limitation caused by the fractured wrists that is the focus of the nursing intervention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is cautious about potential diagnostic errors due to incomplete data. When a client withholds information, it can lead to incomplete data, which may result in inaccurate nursing diagnoses and care planning. Therefore, the nurse's primary concern is collecting accurate data to make informed clinical decisions. Choices B, C, and D are not relevant to the situation described. Generalizing from experience, identifying with the client, and lack of clinical experience do not directly address the issue of incomplete data impacting the diagnostic process.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A nursing diagnosis involves clinical judgment about a response to a health problem. In this scenario, the client's expressions of feeling overwhelmed and lacking energy indicate feelings of hopelessness and powerlessness. While fatigue is mentioned, there is no direct evidence to support an interrupted sleep pattern, making option C incorrect. Similarly, disturbed self-esteem and self-care deficit are not evident from the given cues, making options D and E incorrect.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The problem part of a nursing diagnosis in the context of nursing care plans should focus on the client's response to a life process, event, or stressor. This response is what is used to identify the nursing diagnosis. 'Anxiety' is the most appropriate descriptor for the problem part of a nursing diagnosis as it reflects a psychological response that can be addressed by nursing interventions. 'Grimacing' is a physical manifestation and not the problem itself. 'Oxygenation saturation 93%' and 'Output 500 mL in 8 hours' are data points or cues that a nurse would use to formulate the nursing diagnostic statement, not the actual problem being addressed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Direct care providers, including nurses, should avoid glued-on artificial nails because studies have shown that artificial nails, especially when cracked, broken, or split, create crevices where microorganisms can thrive and multiply. This can lead to an increased risk of transmitting infections to patients. Therefore, the primary reason for avoiding glued-on artificial nails is their potential to harbor harmful microorganisms, making option C the correct choice. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may present some issues, the primary concern is the risk of microbial contamination associated with artificial nails.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario where a patient is sweating and anxious, it is important to assess for signs of potential syncope (fainting) while proceeding with the blood draw. If the patient does not exhibit signs of fainting, the phlebotomy procedure can be performed safely. Postponing the procedure may not address the patient's anxiety and inconvenience them. Having the physician draw the blood is not necessary if the phlebotomist can handle the situation effectively.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific screening test for inflammation in the body. It is not used as a definitive diagnostic tool for specific conditions. When ESR results are abnormal, they indicate the presence of inflammation, which can be caused by various reasons. Therefore, abnormal results should be followed by additional testing to determine the underlying cause. The ESR test measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a vertical tube over the span of one hour, and results are reported in millimeters per hour. Choice A is incorrect because ESR results are not solely diagnostic for any specific condition. Choice B is incorrect as abnormal ESR results do not directly indicate a potentially fatal illness without further investigation. Choice D is incorrect as the results are reported in millimeters per hour, not per minute.