NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.
Question 2 of 9
A two-year-old child has sustained an injury to the leg and refuses to walk. The nurse in the emergency department documents swelling of the lower affected leg. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the cause of the child's symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The child's refusal to walk, along with swelling of the lower leg, indicates a possible fracture, specifically of the tibia. Fractures can cause pain and swelling, leading to difficulty or refusal to bear weight on the affected limb. Choice B, bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle, would not typically result in the child refusing to walk. Choice C, a possible fracture of the radius, is less likely given the location of the swelling and the associated refusal to walk. Choice D, stating no anatomic injury and attributing the child's behavior to wanting to be carried by the mother, is incorrect as the physical findings suggest a potential fracture that needs to be evaluated further.
Question 3 of 9
Which finding indicates to the nurse that lactulose (Cephulac) is effective for a 72-year-old man who has advanced cirrhosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The patient is alert and oriented.' In a patient with advanced cirrhosis, lactulose is used to lower ammonia levels and prevent encephalopathy. A patient being alert and oriented indicates that the medication is effective in achieving this goal. While lactulose may help with constipation, the primary purpose in cirrhosis is to reduce ammonia levels, not to address constipation directly. Denying nausea or anorexia is not a specific indicator of lactulose's effectiveness in treating cirrhosis. Bilirubin levels decreasing are not directly related to lactulose's therapeutic effect on cirrhosis.
Question 4 of 9
A newborn has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. In discussing the condition and treatment with the family, the nurse should emphasize:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is administration of thyroid hormone will prevent problems. In newborns diagnosed with hypothyroidism, early identification and continuous treatment with hormone replacement can correct this condition effectively. Choice A is incorrect as it uses outdated and inappropriate language (mentally retarded) and does not reflect modern understanding of conditions. Choice C is incorrect because while some cases of hypothyroidism can be hereditary, it is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect as physical growth and development can be affected by hypothyroidism, but the critical emphasis should be on the importance of administering thyroid hormone to prevent complications and support normal growth and development.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 36-year-old patient with pancreatic cancer. Which nursing action is the highest priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed. Pain management is the highest priority in this scenario as effective pain control is essential for the patient's overall well-being. Pain relief will not only improve the patient's comfort but also enhance their ability to eat, follow dietary recommendations, and be open to psychological support. Offering psychological support for depression (Choice A) is important but addressing pain takes precedence. While providing high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices (Choice B) is crucial, it is secondary to managing pain. Teaching about the need to avoid scratching pruritic areas (Choice D) is relevant but not the highest priority in this situation where pain management is critical for the patient's quality of life.
Question 6 of 9
The healthcare professional in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the healthcare professional finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention in this scenario is to start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm. The patient's low blood pressure (95/60) and elevated pulse rate (110 beats per minute) indicate a potential hemorrhage, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. Starting a large-bore IV will allow for rapid administration of fluids to stabilize the patient's condition. Asking for a stool sample, preparing to insert an NG tube, or administering morphine sulfate should not take precedence over addressing the hemodynamic instability and potential hemorrhage observed in the patient. These actions may be considered later in the patient's care, but the primary focus should be on addressing the critical issue of fluid replacement and stabilization.
Question 7 of 9
When administering a-interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol) to a patient with chronic hepatitis C, the nurse should monitor for which complication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When administering a-interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol) for chronic hepatitis C, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. This combination therapy is known to cause leukopenia, not polycythemia or hypoglycemia. Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance that can occur with these medications, making it the correct answer to monitor for in this case.
Question 8 of 9
Which assessment finding would the nurse need to report most quickly to the health care provider regarding a patient with acute pancreatitis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is muscle twitching and finger numbness. These symptoms indicate hypocalcemia, which can lead to tetany if not promptly addressed with calcium gluconate administration. Nausea and vomiting, hypotonic bowel sounds, and abdominal tenderness and guarding are important findings in acute pancreatitis but do not require the same urgent intervention as hypocalcemia to prevent potential severe complications.
Question 9 of 9
Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the patient's temperature of 100.8°F (38.2°C). In a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago, a fever is a significant finding that should be promptly communicated to the health care provider. Post-transplant patients are at high risk of infections, and fever can often be the initial indicator of an underlying infectious process. The other findings listed in choices A, B, and D are important and should be addressed, but they do not take precedence over a potential infection post-liver transplant. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa may indicate dehydration, crackles at bilateral lung bases may suggest fluid overload or infection, and no bowel movement for 4 days could indicate a bowel obstruction or ileus. However, in the context of a recent liver transplant, an elevated temperature is the most concerning and requires immediate attention to rule out infection.