Questions 9

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.

Question 2 of 5

Which response would the nurse make at lunchtime to a client who is sitting alone with the head slightly tilted as if listening to something?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The statement, "It's lunchtime; I'll walk with you to the dining room," demonstrates setting limits and providing support. Hallucinations can be frightening, and the nurse's presence offers support and reality without focusing on the hallucination directly. Choice A, "I know you're busy, but it's lunchtime," does not recognize the client's need for support and direction. Choice B, "Are the voices bothering you again?", makes a judgment without sufficient evidence and overly focuses on the hallucination, failing to address the client's need for support and direction. Choice C, "Get going; you don't want to miss lunchtime," does not acknowledge the client's need for reality, support, and direction, and may come across as threatening.

Question 3 of 5

What is the priority nursing action to assist an anxious father in his concern about not bonding with his newborn?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing action to assist an anxious father in his concern about not bonding with his newborn is providing time for the father to be alone with and get to know the baby. Time alone provides the opportunity for paternal-infant attachment and bonding, which can help reduce the father's anxiety. Encouraging the father to participate in a parenting class, although helpful, does not directly address the immediate need for bonding. Offering a demonstration on newborn care tasks like diapering, feeding, and bathing may not effectively address the father's anxiety at that moment, as he may not be ready to absorb such information. Allowing time for the father to ask questions after viewing a film about a new baby is a simplistic approach that may not adequately address the emotional needs and concerns of the father regarding bonding with his newborn.

Question 4 of 5

During the first meeting of a therapy group, members exhibit frequent periods of silence, tense laughter, and nervous movements. Which conclusion would the nurse make?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During the initial stages of a therapy group, it is common for members to exhibit behaviors such as silence, tense laughter, and nervous movements. These behaviors indicate anxiety and insecurity due to the lack of established relationships and trust among the group members. This is a normal part of group development, and it does not necessarily mean that the group process is unhealthy. Intervening or addressing these behaviors immediately is not required as they are expected in the early stages of group interaction. As the group progresses and relationships are built, these behaviors are likely to diminish naturally without the need for active leader intervention. Therefore, the correct conclusion is that the members are displaying expected behaviors because relationships are not yet established. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because active leader intervention is not necessary, the group process is not unhealthy, and addressing the behaviors immediately is not required as they are part of the early group dynamics and are expected to subside as relationships develop.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

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