NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
According to psychodynamic theory, what purpose do delusions serve?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to psychodynamic theory, delusions serve as a defense mechanism against anxiety triggered by real or perceived threats. Delusions are the individual's unconscious way of protecting themselves from overwhelming feelings of anxiety. Magical thinking, on the other hand, involves believing that one's thoughts can influence external events. This is not the same as delusions. Delusions are not a way of interpreting external stimuli but rather a defense mechanism. Expressing anger and hostility is typically associated with defense mechanisms like displacement or projection, not delusions.
Question 2 of 5
Why might a nurse manager suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse manager would suggest avoiding therapeutic group work for a client with schizophrenia who has paranoid delusions because individuals who are suspicious find group settings threatening. Paranoid individuals struggle in groups as they may not trust others enough to engage effectively and tolerate the necessary interactions for group therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is that therapeutic group work tends to be threatening to individuals who are suspicious. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While some individuals with schizophrenia may respond well to small therapeutic groups, those with paranoid delusions may find them threatening. Compliance with unit rules and medication regimens may not necessarily increase with group therapy, especially for acutely ill psychiatric clients not ready to accept reality. Involvement in small therapeutic groups is not primarily aimed at decreasing regression and dependency associated with institutionalization, making it an inappropriate option for the client's specific needs.
Question 3 of 5
What is the nurse's initial plan for providing pain relief measures during labor for a pregnant client with a history of opioid abuse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a pregnant client with a history of opioid abuse, scheduling pain medication at regular intervals is the initial plan for providing pain relief during labor. This client may have a lower tolerance for pain and a greater need for pain relief. If medication is only administered when the pain is severe, larger doses may be needed, leading to increased anxiety and discomfort. Avoiding medication unless requested is not ideal, as proactive pain management is crucial during labor. Recognizing that less pain medication will be needed by this client compared with others is incorrect, as individuals with a history of opioid abuse often require more medication due to tolerance to addictive drugs.
Question 4 of 5
A 37-year-old woman with a history of fibroids and menorrhagia that have not been responsive to hormonal treatments is admitted with severe menorrhagia resulting in anemia. She also has depression and pelvic pain. She is crying and states, 'I don't know what to do"?my primary health care provider is recommending a hysterectomy, but I haven't had children yet!' Which response would the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's feelings and provide an open-ended question to encourage further expression. By expressing empathy and understanding, the nurse can create a supportive environment for the client. This approach allows the client to explore her emotions and concerns freely. Option A, suggesting adoption, may come across as dismissive of the client's current emotional state and may not address her immediate needs. Option D is insensitive and dismissive of the client's feelings and desires regarding having children. It is important to avoid making assumptions or judgments about the client's situation. Option C is a duplicate of Option B, and while it shows empathy, it lacks variety in communication, which may limit the depth of the conversation and the nurse's understanding of the client's needs.
Question 5 of 5
For a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, which reaction is most likely to occur when the performance of a ritual is interrupted?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is interrupted while performing a ritual, the most likely reaction is anxiety. The compulsive ritual serves as a coping mechanism to control anxiety, so any disruption to this ritual can heighten the individual's anxiety levels. Hostility is typically part of the disorder itself and not a direct reaction to the interruption of the ritual. Aggression may occur only if anxiety escalates to a panic level, leading to overt anger expression. Withdrawal is not a common behavioral pattern associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and is not a typical reaction to ritual interruption.