NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient states, "I'm not worth anything. I have negative thoughts about myself. I feel anxious and shaky all the time. Sometimes I feel so sad that I want to go to sleep and never wake up."? Which nursing intervention should have the highest priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario should be suicide precautions. The patient's statement indicates suicidal ideation, which poses an immediate risk to their safety. By implementing suicide precautions, the nurse can ensure constant monitoring and intervention to prevent any self-harm. While addressing self-esteem, anxiety, and sleep issues are essential, ensuring the patient's safety by prioritizing suicide precautions is crucial. Self-esteem-building activities, anxiety self-control measures, and sleep enhancement activities are important interventions but should follow the immediate concern of preventing harm from suicidal thoughts.
Question 2 of 5
The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is having difficulty understanding how to properly run her glucose meter. Which of the following teaching methods would best help the patient understand how to use her instrument correctly?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: By using a demonstration and performance method of patient education, the patient is offered a chance to perform a task and have learning assessed while still in the office. This ensures that any questions that the patient has can be answered immediately, and any performance issues observed by the medical assistant can also be corrected promptly. Choice A is not as effective as providing a demonstration in person, as it may not address the patient's specific learning needs or allow for immediate feedback. Choice B suggests asking a healthcare provider to demonstrate, which is similar to the correct answer but may not always be readily available in the office. Choice C, watching a video, lacks the interactive component and immediate feedback that a live demonstration provides, making it less effective in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following bony landmarks is described as a large, blunt, irregularly shaped process found on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trochanter. The Greater Trochanter is located on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur and is a large, blunt, irregularly shaped bony process. It serves as an important attachment site for many muscles of the legs, providing leverage and movement. Choice A, Tubercle, is a small rounded projection, usually for the attachment of a ligament or tendon. Choice B, Tuberosity, is a large rounded projection, also typically for muscle attachment. Choice C, Condyle, refers to a rounded articular surface at the end of a bone, usually involved in joints.
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