NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient with a cast on the right leg is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following assessment findings would be most concerning for the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A foul-smelling odor emanating from the cast is a concerning finding as it indicates the possibility of infection or the presence of a pressure ulcer. These conditions can lead to serious complications if not promptly addressed. It is crucial for the nurse to investigate further and take appropriate actions to prevent potential harm to the patient. The other options do not directly indicate a risk of infection or complications associated with the cast. Itching and discomfort are common complaints due to wearing a cast, and the patient being on antibiotics may be part of their treatment plan for an unrelated condition. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds is within the normal range and would not be a cause for immediate concern in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
The parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease is receiving feeding instructions from the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves the backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to sphincter issues. To reduce episodes of emesis, it is recommended to thicken feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula. This helps to weigh down the contents in the stomach, making regurgitation less likely. Providing smaller, more frequent feedings and burping the infant frequently are beneficial strategies for gastroesophageal reflux. However, in this case, thickening the feedings is the most appropriate intervention. Thinning the feedings by adding water to the formula is not recommended as it can decrease the caloric density of the formula and may not help in reducing reflux.
Question 3 of 5
Based on Mr. C's assessment, which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of Mr. C's assessment, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to monitor urine output. A client in hypovolemic shock may experience decreased urine output due to poor kidney perfusion. By monitoring urine output, the nurse can assess renal function and fluid status. Administering total parenteral nutrition (Choice C) is not indicated based on the information provided, as the priority is to stabilize the client's condition. Elevating the lower extremities (Choice A) may be helpful in some cases but is not the priority in this situation. Placing Mr. C in the Trendelenburg position (Choice B) is contraindicated in hypovolemic shock as it can worsen venous return and compromise cardiac output.
Question 4 of 5
Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.
Question 5 of 5
Mr. L was working in his garage at home and had an accident with a power saw. He is brought into the emergency department by a neighbor with a traumatic hand amputation. What is the first action of the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply direct pressure to the injury. When a client presents with traumatic hand amputation causing excessive bleeding, the immediate goal is to control the bleeding. Applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing helps to stem the flow of blood and stabilize the patient. Placing a tourniquet at the level of the elbow should be avoided initially as it may lead to further complications such as tissue damage. Administering a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline is not the priority in this situation where hemorrhage control is crucial. Elevating the injured extremity on a pillow does not address the primary concern of controlling the bleeding and stabilizing the patient.