NCLEX-RN
Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has applied a cold pack to their arm to help decrease swelling and inflammation after an injury. Which of the following signs indicates that the cold pack should be removed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When using a cold pack for therapeutic purposes, it is essential to monitor the site to prevent tissue damage. Prolonged use of cold therapy can lead to pale, mottled skin with a bluish appearance. This change in skin color indicates poor circulation, and the cold pack should be removed immediately to prevent tissue injury. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the duration of cold pack application, client complaints of nausea, and capillary refill time do not specifically indicate the need for the cold pack to be removed due to potential tissue damage.
Question 2 of 9
A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
A client has become combative and is attempting to pull out his IV and take off his surgical dressings. The nurse receives an order to apply wrist restraints. Which action of the nurse signifies that restraints are being used safely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restraint use must prioritize the safety of the client. When applying restraints around the wrists, the padded side should be placed against the skin to help prevent skin breakdown. Additionally, restraints should be secured in quick-release knots to ensure they can be removed rapidly in case of an emergency. Choice A is incorrect as restraints should not be tied in a way that could prevent quick removal. Choice B is incorrect because restraints should not be attached to a movable part of the bed to avoid unintentional movement. Choice D is incorrect as assessing distal circulation is important but is not directly related to the safe application of restraints.
Question 4 of 9
While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following actions is most appropriate for reducing the risk of infection during the post-operative period?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action to reduce the risk of infection during the post-operative period is to remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory. Urinary catheters can serve as a source of bacteria, increasing the risk of infection in the bladder or urethra. By removing the catheter promptly once the client is mobile, the risk of infection can be minimized. Option A, flushing the central line with heparin, is not directly related to reducing urinary tract infections. Option B, administering narcotic analgesics as needed, is important for pain management but does not directly address infection prevention. Option D, ordering a high-protein diet, may be beneficial for wound healing but does not specifically target infection risk reduction in the post-operative period.
Question 6 of 9
What is the first aid for frostbite?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: First aid for frostbite involves running cold water over the affected area. It is important to avoid warm or hot water as it can shock the area and cause further tissue damage. Warm water should not be used to rapidly rewarm the affected area. Similarly, hot water should also be avoided as it can warm the area too quickly and potentially cause harm. Covering the area with a blanket and using a heating pad may not be effective and can even lead to more damage. Seeking medical assistance is crucial if the tissue appears necrotic to prevent further complications.
Question 7 of 9
The acronym FAST is used to help responders remember the steps to recognizing which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stroke. The acronym FAST is used to help recognize the signs of a stroke. The letters stand for Face, Arms, Speech, and Time. This mnemonic helps in identifying facial drooping, arm weakness, speech difficulties, and the importance of time in seeking emergency care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the FAST acronym specifically pertains to stroke recognition, not the onset of labor, heart attacks, or migraines.
Question 8 of 9
What is the proper personal protective equipment necessary for collecting a sputum specimen?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When collecting a sputum specimen, it is crucial to protect against potential airborne droplets that may spread disease. The best personal protective equipment for this task includes gloves and a face mask. Gloves help prevent the spread of contaminants through hand contact, while a face mask protects the respiratory tract from inhaling infectious agents. Choice B, Level Three Biocontainment uniforms, is excessive and unnecessary for routine sputum specimen collection. Choice C, eye protection and shoe covers, does not address the specific risks associated with sputum collection. Choice D, splash shield and face mask, provides additional protection that is not typically required for sputum specimen collection, making it less appropriate than gloves and a face mask.
Question 9 of 9
Improper placement of the hands under the rib cage when performing the Heimlich maneuver could result in:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The xiphoid process is a small, cartilaginous extension at the inferior end of the sternum. Placing the hands improperly during the Heimlich maneuver too close to this process can result in it breaking off and potentially causing damage to internal organs. Choices A and C are incorrect because the manubrium of the sternum and the coccyx are not in the area where the hands would typically be placed during the Heimlich maneuver.